A 30-year-old man presents with progressive muscle weakness for the past 6 hours. He says he had significant bilateral ankle pain which onset shortly after completing a triathlon earlier in the day. Then, he says he awoke this morning with bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness, which has progressively worsened. He has no significant past medical history and takes no current medication. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0℃ (98.6℉), pulse 66/min, respiratory rate 21/min, and blood pressure 132/83 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has diffuse moderate to severe muscle pain on palpation. His strength is 5 out of 5, and deep tendon reflexes are 2+ in the upper and lower extremities bilaterally. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Laboratory test
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 6.3 mEq/L
Chloride 103 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 6.1 mg/dL
BUN/Creatinine 5.0
Glucose (fasting) 80 mg/dL
Calcium 6.3 mg/dL
Serum creatine kinase (CK) 90 mcg/L (ref: 10–120 mcg/L)
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q12
A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after his wife found him unconscious on the bathroom floor. On arrival, he is conscious and alert. He remembers having palpitations and feeling lightheaded and short of breath before losing consciousness. He takes captopril for hypertension and glyburide for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His vitals are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Random serum glucose concentration is 85 mg/dL. An ECG shows a short PR interval and a wide QRS complex with initial slurring. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals normal echocardiographic findings with normal left ventricular systolic function. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's findings?
Q13
A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of episodic shortness of breath. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated serum IgE levels. Microscopic examination of the sputum shows eosinophilic, hexagonal, double-pointed crystals. A methacholine challenge test is positive. Exposure to which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
Q14
A 72-year-old man is taken to the emergency room after losing consciousness. According to his wife, he suddenly complained of fluttering in his chest, lightheadedness, and profuse sweating while walking to the grocery store. He then turned gray, lost consciousness, and collapsed onto the ground. His medical history is significant for a prior anterior wall myocardial infarction 2 years ago that was complicated by severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction. His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), and the carotid pulse is not palpable. An ECG was obtained and the results are shown in the picture. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated and the patient is cardioverted to sinus rhythm with an external defibrillator. The patient regains consciousness and states there was no antecedent chest discomfort. Cardiac enzymes are negative and serum electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
Q15
A 55-year-old woman presents to the physician with repeated episodes of dizziness for the last 3 months, which are triggered by rising from a supine position and by lying down. The episodes are sudden and usually last for less than 30 seconds. During the episode, she feels as if she is suddenly thrown into a rolling spin. She has no symptoms in the period between episodes. The patient denies having headaches, vomiting, deafness, ear discharge or ear pain. There is no history of a known medical disorder or prolonged consumption of a specific drug. The vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, when the physician asks the woman to turn her head 45° to the right, and then to rapidly move from the sitting to the supine position, self-limited rotatory nystagmus is observed following her return to the sitting position. The rest of the neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the condition of this patient?
Q16
A 77-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling like “his heart was racing” for the last 8 days. He denies any chest pain, dizziness, or fainting but complains of fatigue, difficulty breathing with exertion, and swelling of his legs bilaterally for the last 2 weeks. He has had hypertension for the last 25 years. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption but denies smoking. His blood pressure is 145/70 mm Hg and the pulse is irregular at the rate of 110/min. On examination of his lower limbs, mild pitting edema is noted of his ankles bilaterally. On cardiac auscultation, heart sounds are irregular. Bibasilar crackles are heard with auscultation of the lungs. An ECG is ordered and the result is shown in the image. Transesophageal echocardiography shows a reduced ejection fraction of 32% and dilatation of all chambers of the heart without any obvious intracardiac thrombus. Which of the following is the optimal therapy for this patient?
Q17
A 76-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department 60 minutes after the acute onset of left-sided abdominal pain and nausea with vomiting. Three weeks ago, she underwent emergency surgical revascularization for acute left lower extremity ischemia. Physical examination shows left upper quadrant tenderness without rebound or guarding. Serum studies show an elevated lactate dehydrogenase level. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, basic metabolic panel, and hepatic panel, are otherwise unremarkable. A transverse section of a CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q18
A 21-year-old woman presents with palpitations and anxiety. She had a recent outpatient ECG that was suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia, but her previous physician failed to find any underlying disease. No other significant past medical history. Her vital signs include blood pressure 102/65 mm Hg, pulse 120/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). Electrophysiological studies reveal an atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia. The patient refuses an ablation procedure so it is decided to perform synchronized cardioversion with consequent ongoing management with verapamil. Which of the following ECG features should be monitored in this patient during treatment?
Q19
A previously healthy 66-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of fever, cough, and right-sided chest pain. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F) and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination shows dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus, and egophony in the right lower lung field. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q20
A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic after experiencing what she describes as an odd episode of tingling in her fingers and the sensation of smelling sour milk. She denies loss of consciousness, confusion, or incontinence. She also denies a history of head trauma or the ingestion of toxic substances. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), the heart rate is 98/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, the blood pressure is 100/75 mm Hg, and the O2 saturation is 100% on room air. The physical exam, including a full neurologic and cardiac assessment, demonstrates no abnormal findings. Laboratory findings are shown. Brain MRI does not indicate any areas of infarction or hemorrhage. ECG is normal, and EEG is pending.
BUN 15 mg/dL
pCO2 40 mmHg
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Serum chloride 103 mmol/L
Serum potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Total calcium 2.3 mmol/L
Magnesium 1.7 mEq/L
Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Glycosylated hemoglobin 5.5%
Total cholesterol 4 mmol/L
Bicarbonate (HCO3) 19 mmol/L
Urine toxicology screen is negative. What kind of seizure is most likely being described?
Arrhythmias US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 30-year-old man presents with progressive muscle weakness for the past 6 hours. He says he had significant bilateral ankle pain which onset shortly after completing a triathlon earlier in the day. Then, he says he awoke this morning with bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness, which has progressively worsened. He has no significant past medical history and takes no current medication. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0℃ (98.6℉), pulse 66/min, respiratory rate 21/min, and blood pressure 132/83 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has diffuse moderate to severe muscle pain on palpation. His strength is 5 out of 5, and deep tendon reflexes are 2+ in the upper and lower extremities bilaterally. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Laboratory test
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 6.3 mEq/L
Chloride 103 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 6.1 mg/dL
BUN/Creatinine 5.0
Glucose (fasting) 80 mg/dL
Calcium 6.3 mg/dL
Serum creatine kinase (CK) 90 mcg/L (ref: 10–120 mcg/L)
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. IV calcium chloride
B. Blood transfusion
C. ECG (Correct Answer)
D. Kayexalate
E. Hemodialysis
Explanation: ***ECG***
- This patient presents with **hyperkalemia** (potassium 6.3 mEq/L) and **hypocalcemia** (calcium 6.3 mg/dL), which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
- An **ECG** is crucial for assessing for cardiac manifestations of hyperkalemia, such as **peaked T waves**, prolonged PR interval, and widened QRS complex, to guide immediate treatment.
*IV calcium chloride*
- While **IV calcium chloride** (or calcium gluconate) is indicated in hyperkalemia with ECG changes, the **ECG needs to be performed first** to confirm the cardiac effects and guide the urgency and necessity of calcium administration.
- Administering calcium without an ECG could delay the diagnosis of significant arrhythmias or mask changes, leading to inappropriate management.
*Blood transfusion*
- There is no indication for a **blood transfusion** in this patient; his hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are not provided, and there is no mention of acute blood loss or symptomatic anemia.
- Transfusions carry risks and should only be given when clearly indicated.
*Kayexalate*
- **Kayexalate** (sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is a potassium-binding resin used to lower potassium levels, but its onset of action is slow (hours).
- Given the patient's acute symptoms and significantly high potassium, more immediate measures to stabilize the myocardium and shift potassium intracellularly are prioritized, with Kayexalate considered as an adjunctive treatment.
*Hemodialysis*
- **Hemodialysis** is the most effective way to rapidly remove potassium and is indicated in severe, refractory hyperkalemia or when there are signs of advanced renal failure with complications.
- However, it is an invasive procedure and other less invasive, yet rapid-acting, treatments (like calcium for cardiac stabilization, insulin-dextrose, or beta-agonists for potassium shift) should be considered and an ECG should be obtained first to determine the severity and direct initial management.
Question 12: A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after his wife found him unconscious on the bathroom floor. On arrival, he is conscious and alert. He remembers having palpitations and feeling lightheaded and short of breath before losing consciousness. He takes captopril for hypertension and glyburide for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His vitals are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Random serum glucose concentration is 85 mg/dL. An ECG shows a short PR interval and a wide QRS complex with initial slurring. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals normal echocardiographic findings with normal left ventricular systolic function. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's findings?
A. Ischemic myocardial necrosis
B. Ectopic foci within the ventricles
C. Accessory atrioventricular pathway (Correct Answer)
D. A dysfunctional AV node
E. Low serum glucose levels
Explanation: ***Accessory atrioventricular pathway***
- The ECG findings of a **short PR interval**, **wide QRS complex**, and **initial slurring (delta wave)** are characteristic of **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome**, which is caused by an **accessory atrioventricular pathway**.
- Symptoms like **palpitations, lightheadedness, and syncope** in a patient with these ECG findings suggest an underlying **tachyarrhythmia originating from the accessory pathway**.
*Ischemic myocardial necrosis*
- While syncope can be a symptom of **myocardial ischemia**, the ECG findings (short PR, wide QRS with delta wave) are not typical for **ischemia or infarction**.
- The **normal echocardiogram** and absence of chest pain also make **ischemic myocardial necrosis** less likely.
*Ectopic foci within the ventricles*
- **Ventricular ectopic foci** can cause wide QRS complexes (e.g., in ventricular tachycardia), but they typically do not involve a **short PR interval or a delta wave**.
- The characteristic ECG pattern observed points away from primary **ventricular ectopy** as the underlying cause.
*A dysfunctional AV node*
- A **dysfunctional AV node** typically leads to **AV blocks** (prolonged PR interval, dropped beats) or sometimes reentrant tachycardias, but it does not cause a **short PR interval with a delta wave and wide QRS complex**.
- The described ECG pattern indicates a bypass of the **AV node's normal delay function**.
*Low serum glucose levels*
- Although the patient takes **glyburide** (which can cause hypoglycemia), his **random serum glucose** was 85 mg/dL, which is within the normal range and does not indicate **hypoglycemia**.
- While hypoglycemia can cause syncope, it does not explain the specific ECG abnormalities observed.
Question 13: A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of episodic shortness of breath. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated serum IgE levels. Microscopic examination of the sputum shows eosinophilic, hexagonal, double-pointed crystals. A methacholine challenge test is positive. Exposure to which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
A. Aspirin
B. Cold air
C. Tobacco smoke
D. Dust mites (Correct Answer)
E. Bird droppings
Explanation: ***Dust mites***
- The presence of **Charcot-Leyden crystals** (eosinophilic, hexagonal, double-pointed) in sputum and elevated serum **IgE** levels indicate an **allergic inflammatory process** in the airways, characteristic of **asthma**.
- **Dust mites** are common indoor allergens that trigger such an allergic response in susceptible individuals, leading to episodic **shortness of breath** and a positive **methacholine challenge test**.
*Aspirin*
- While aspirin can trigger asthma in some individuals (**aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease**), it is typically associated with nasal polyps and a severe asthma phenotype, and would not necessarily cause Charcot-Leyden crystals or elevated IgE due to a primary allergic response to aspirin itself.
- Aspirin-induced asthma is a pseudoallergic reaction, not an IgE-mediated allergic response to the drug itself.
*Cold air*
- **Cold air** can be a non-specific trigger for bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma, but it is not an allergen and would not directly cause **elevated IgE** levels or Charcot-Leyden crystals.
- It acts as an irritant that can worsen existing airway hyperactivity.
*Tobacco smoke*
- **Tobacco smoke** is a strong respiratory irritant and can exacerbate asthma symptoms and contribute to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
- However, it does not typically cause **elevated IgE** levels or the formation of **Charcot-Leyden crystals** through an IgE-mediated allergic mechanism.
*Bird droppings*
- Exposure to **bird droppings** can cause **extrinsic allergic alveolitis** (hypersensitivity pneumonitis), a restrictive lung disease, or IgE-mediated allergies leading to asthma.
- While it can be associated with IgE sensitization, the presentation of asthma with episodic shortness of breath and the specific finding of Charcot-Leyden crystals point more strongly to common inhaled allergens like dust mites.
Question 14: A 72-year-old man is taken to the emergency room after losing consciousness. According to his wife, he suddenly complained of fluttering in his chest, lightheadedness, and profuse sweating while walking to the grocery store. He then turned gray, lost consciousness, and collapsed onto the ground. His medical history is significant for a prior anterior wall myocardial infarction 2 years ago that was complicated by severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction. His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), and the carotid pulse is not palpable. An ECG was obtained and the results are shown in the picture. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated and the patient is cardioverted to sinus rhythm with an external defibrillator. The patient regains consciousness and states there was no antecedent chest discomfort. Cardiac enzymes are negative and serum electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
A. Intravenous magnesium sulphate
B. Intravenous adenosine
C. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (Correct Answer)
D. Intravenous metoprolol
E. Temporary or permanent cardiac pacing
Explanation: ***Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator***
- The patient experienced **sudden cardiac arrest (SCA)** due to a **lethal ventricular arrhythmia (ventricular tachycardia progressing to ventricular fibrillation)**, suggested by the syncopal episode, unrecordable pulse, and successful defibrillation.
- Given the history of severe **left ventricular systolic dysfunction** (LVEF <35-40%) post-MI, he is at high risk for recurrence, making an **ICD** the most appropriate intervention for secondary prevention of SCA.
*Intravenous magnesium sulphate*
- **Magnesium sulfate** is primarily used for the treatment of **Torsades de Pointes**, a polymorphic VT often associated with a prolonged QT interval.
- The provided ECG (though not visible here, the clinical context implies a monomorphic VT or VF) and history do not specifically suggest Torsades de Pointes.
*Intravenous adenosine*
- **Adenosine** is the drug of choice for terminating **supraventricular tachycardias (SVTs)** by transiently blocking the AV node.
- It is **contraindicated** in wide-complex tachycardias of uncertain origin, especially in patients with structural heart disease, as it can worsen ventricular arrhythmias.
*Intravenous metoprolol*
- **Beta-blockers** like metoprolol are used to slow heart rate, reduce myocardial oxygen demand, and can be helpful in some forms of VT, but they are not the definitive treatment for **hemodynamically unstable** VT or for preventing future SCA in a patient with severe LV dysfunction.
- Administering a beta-blocker during an acute, unstable event could worsen hypotension.
*Temporary or permanent cardiac pacing*
- **Cardiac pacing** is indicated for **bradyarrhythmias** or some forms of **tachycardia** (e.g., overdrive pacing for recurrent VT), but it is not the primary treatment for preventing SCA from ventricular fibrillation in a patient with severe LV dysfunction like this.
- The patient's presentation was due to a fast, lethal arrhythmia, not a slow rhythm.
Question 15: A 55-year-old woman presents to the physician with repeated episodes of dizziness for the last 3 months, which are triggered by rising from a supine position and by lying down. The episodes are sudden and usually last for less than 30 seconds. During the episode, she feels as if she is suddenly thrown into a rolling spin. She has no symptoms in the period between episodes. The patient denies having headaches, vomiting, deafness, ear discharge or ear pain. There is no history of a known medical disorder or prolonged consumption of a specific drug. The vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, when the physician asks the woman to turn her head 45° to the right, and then to rapidly move from the sitting to the supine position, self-limited rotatory nystagmus is observed following her return to the sitting position. The rest of the neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the condition of this patient?
A. Oral prednisolone for 2 weeks and follow-up
B. Singular neurectomy
C. Posterior canal occlusion
D. Canalith repositioning (Correct Answer)
E. Oral meclizine for 6 weeks and follow-up
Explanation: ***Canalith repositioning***
- The patient's symptoms (short-lasting, positional dizziness, rolling spin sensation, absence of other neurological symptoms, and positive **Dix-Hallpike maneuver** with **rotatory nystagmus**) are characteristic of **Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)**.
- **Canalith repositioning maneuvers** (e.g., Epley maneuver) are the treatment of choice as they aim to move dislodged otoconia out of the semicircular canals.
*Oral prednisolone for 2 weeks and follow-up*
- **Prednisolone** is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, but it is **not indicated for BPPV**, which is a mechanical problem.
- While corticosteroids might be used in other vestibular disorders like Meniere's disease or vestibular neuritis, they would not address the underlying cause of BPPV.
*Singular neurectomy*
- **Singular neurectomy** is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the singular nerve (posterior ampullary nerve).
- This is a highly invasive treatment reserved for **intractable BPPV** that has failed multiple conservative treatments, and it carries risks such as hearing loss.
*Posterior canal occlusion*
- **Posterior canal occlusion** is a surgical procedure that involves plugging the posterior semicircular canal.
- This is a surgical option for **severe, refractory BPPV** that has not responded to canalith repositioning maneuvers, and it is more invasive than repositioning.
*Oral meclizine for 6 weeks and follow-up*
- **Meclizine** is an antihistamine used to relieve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with vertigo.
- While it can help alleviate symptoms, it does **not treat the underlying cause of BPPV** and is typically used for symptomatic relief, not as a definitive treatment.
Question 16: A 77-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling like “his heart was racing” for the last 8 days. He denies any chest pain, dizziness, or fainting but complains of fatigue, difficulty breathing with exertion, and swelling of his legs bilaterally for the last 2 weeks. He has had hypertension for the last 25 years. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption but denies smoking. His blood pressure is 145/70 mm Hg and the pulse is irregular at the rate of 110/min. On examination of his lower limbs, mild pitting edema is noted of his ankles bilaterally. On cardiac auscultation, heart sounds are irregular. Bibasilar crackles are heard with auscultation of the lungs. An ECG is ordered and the result is shown in the image. Transesophageal echocardiography shows a reduced ejection fraction of 32% and dilatation of all chambers of the heart without any obvious intracardiac thrombus. Which of the following is the optimal therapy for this patient?
A. Immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion
B. Warfarin and diltiazem indefinitely
C. Rivaroxaban for 3–4 weeks followed by cardioversion and continuation of rivaroxaban (Correct Answer)
D. Catheter ablation for pulmonary vein isolation
E. Observation
Explanation: ***Rivaroxaban for 3–4 weeks followed by cardioversion and continuation of rivaroxaban***
- This patient has **atrial fibrillation (AF)** with a history of hypertension, which places him at high risk of **thromboembolic events** (CHA2DS2-VASc score). Since the AF has been present for 8 days, it is considered of **unknown duration** (or longer than 48 hours for practical purposes), necessitating adequate **anticoagulation (3-4 weeks)** before cardioversion to prevent stroke.
- After successful cardioversion, indefinite continuation of **oral anticoagulation with rivaroxaban** (a direct oral anticoagulant or DOAC) is crucial given his high CHA2DS2-VASc score to prevent future strokes due to recurrent AF or paroxysmal AF episodes.
*Immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion*
- **Immediate cardioversion** without prior anticoagulation is contraindicated because the AF duration is unknown/longer than 48 hours, significantly increasing the risk of **thromboembolic stroke** as pre-formed clots in the atrium could embolize upon restoration of sinus rhythm.
- While the patient is hemodynamically stable, the risk of stroke from immediate cardioversion outweighs the benefits.
*Warfarin and diltiazem indefinitely*
- Although **warfarin** is a suitable anticoagulant, starting it now and continuing **diltiazem** (for rate control) indefinitely without attempting rhythm control (cardioversion) would leave the patient in AF, contributing to continued symptoms and progressive **cardiac remodeling** given his reduced ejection fraction.
- The goal should be to restore sinus rhythm while ensuring safe anticoagulation.
*Catheter ablation for pulmonary vein isolation*
- While **catheter ablation** is an effective rhythm control strategy for AF, it is typically considered after **pharmacological management** fails or in patients who prefer a non-pharmacological approach.
- In this acute setting, the immediate priority is to safely cardiovert the patient after adequate anticoagulation, and ablation is a secondary consideration for long-term rhythm maintenance.
*Observation*
- **Observation** is inappropriate given the patient's symptomatic AF, reduced ejection fraction, and risk of **thromboembolic stroke**.
- This approach would leave the patient in AF, exacerbating his symptoms and increasing the risk of complications such as **heart failure progression** and stroke.
Question 17: A 76-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department 60 minutes after the acute onset of left-sided abdominal pain and nausea with vomiting. Three weeks ago, she underwent emergency surgical revascularization for acute left lower extremity ischemia. Physical examination shows left upper quadrant tenderness without rebound or guarding. Serum studies show an elevated lactate dehydrogenase level. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, basic metabolic panel, and hepatic panel, are otherwise unremarkable. A transverse section of a CT scan of the abdomen is shown. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Infrarenal aortic aneurysm on abdominal CT scan
B. Non-compressible femoral vein on ultrasonography
C. Schistocytes on peripheral blood smear
D. Right atrial thrombus on transesophageal echocardiography
E. Absent P waves on electrocardiogram (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Absent P waves on electrocardiogram***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **acute mesenteric ischemia**, including sudden onset severe abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, and a history of vascular disease in a hypercoagulable state (recent revascularization for limb ischemia). An elevated **lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)** is a non-specific but suggestive marker of tissue ischemia. The CT scan images show **pneumatosis intestinalis** and portomesenteric venous gas, which are definitive signs of bowel infarction.
- The most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is an **arterial embolism**, often originating from the heart due to **atrial fibrillation**. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to blood stasis and clot formation, which can then embolize. An **absent P wave** on ECG is the hallmark of atrial fibrillation.
*Infrarenal aortic aneurysm on abdominal CT scan*
- While an aortic aneurysm can cause abdominal pain, the pain is typically described as tearing or radiating to the back, and the CT findings of **pneumatosis intestinalis** and **portomesenteric venous gas** are not features of an uncomplicated aortic aneurysm.
- Furthermore, an aneurysm would not explain the high likelihood of **cardiac embolization** as the cause of mesenteric ischemia in this setting.
*Non-compressible femoral vein on ultrasonography*
- A non-compressible femoral vein indicates **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, which could lead to a pulmonary embolism, but not typically acute arterial mesenteric ischemia unless there is a paradoxical embolism through a patent foramen ovale, which is less common.
- DVT is a venous issue, whereas acute mesenteric ischemia is primarily an arterial occlusive disease in this clinical context.
*Schistocytes on peripheral blood smear*
- **Schistocytes** indicate **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, which can be seen in conditions like thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), or disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
- While systemic illnesses can contribute to vascular problems, the acute presentation with clear signs of bowel ischemia and a history pointing to an embolic source makes other diagnoses less likely to be the primary cause of mesenteric ischemia.
*Right atrial thrombus on transesophageal echocardiography*
- A right atrial thrombus is typically associated with conditions that increase venous stasis, such as central venous catheters or deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and usually causes **pulmonary embolism** if it embolizes.
- While a thrombus in the heart can embolize, an **arterial embolism** causing mesenteric ischemia more commonly originates from the left side of the heart, particularly in the context of atrial fibrillation.
Question 18: A 21-year-old woman presents with palpitations and anxiety. She had a recent outpatient ECG that was suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia, but her previous physician failed to find any underlying disease. No other significant past medical history. Her vital signs include blood pressure 102/65 mm Hg, pulse 120/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). Electrophysiological studies reveal an atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia. The patient refuses an ablation procedure so it is decided to perform synchronized cardioversion with consequent ongoing management with verapamil. Which of the following ECG features should be monitored in this patient during treatment?
A. Amplitude and direction of the T wave
B. Length of QRS complex
C. Length of QT interval
D. Length of PR interval (Correct Answer)
E. QRS complex amplitude
Explanation: ***Length of PR interval***
- Verapamil is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** that primarily acts on the **AV node** to slow conduction.
- Monitoring the **PR interval** is crucial because excessive slowing of AV nodal conduction can lead to **AV block**, which is indicated by a prolonged PR interval.
*Amplitude and direction of the T wave*
- Changes in T-wave amplitude and direction are often associated with **myocardial ischemia** or **electrolyte imbalances**, which are not the primary concerns with verapamil.
- While verapamil can affect repolarization, the most direct and common adverse effect related to its mechanism of action on the AV node is not primarily reflected in T-wave changes.
*Length of QRS complex*
- The QRS complex duration primarily reflects **ventricular depolarization** and is typically affected by medications that alter conduction through the His-Purkinje system or within the ventricles, such as antiarrhythmics like **flecainide** or **amiodarone**.
- Verapamil's main action is on the AV node, so it generally does not significantly prolong the QRS complex unless there is pre-existing conduction system disease.
*Length of QT interval*
- The QT interval represents **ventricular repolarization**, and its prolongation can lead to **Torsades de Pointes**, a life-threatening arrhythmia.
- While many antiarrhythmics can prolong the QT interval, **verapamil is not known to significantly prolong the QT interval** and is generally considered safe in this regard.
*QRS complex amplitude*
- Changes in QRS amplitude can indicate conditions like **pericardial effusion**, **cardiomyopathy**, or changes in ventricular mass.
- These are generally not direct or common side effects of verapamil therapy, which primarily focuses on AV nodal conduction.
Question 19: A previously healthy 66-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of fever, cough, and right-sided chest pain. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F) and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination shows dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus, and egophony in the right lower lung field. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Fluid in the interstitial space
B. Air in the pleural space
C. Consolidation of a lung segment (Correct Answer)
D. Fluid in the pleural space
E. Collapse of a lung segment
Explanation: ***Consolidation of a lung segment***
- The combination of **fever**, **cough**, and **chest pain** along with physical exam findings of **dullness to percussion**, **increased tactile fremitus**, and **egophony** in a specific lung field is classic for **lobar pneumonia**, which involves consolidation.
- **Consolidation** occurs when the normally air-filled alveoli become filled with inflammatory exudate (fluid, cells, and fibrin), leading to increased density of the lung tissue.
*Fluid in the interstitial space*
- **Interstitial fluid** typically causes **crackles** on auscultation and can be associated with conditions like **pulmonary edema**, but it does not usually cause **increased tactile fremitus** or **egophony**.
- **Dullness to percussion** would be less localized and tactile fremitus would not be increased as the sound transmission is not enhanced.
*Air in the pleural space*
- **Air in the pleural space (pneumothorax)** would lead to **hyperresonance** to percussion, **decreased or absent breath sounds**, and **decreased tactile fremitus**, which are opposite to the findings described.
- There would be no egophony, as sound transmission is diminished.
*Fluid in the pleural space*
- **Fluid in the pleural space (pleural effusion)** would cause **dullness to percussion** and **decreased or absent breath sounds** over the effusion.
- It would also typically result in **decreased tactile fremitus** due to the fluid separating the lung from the chest wall, unlike the increased fremitus seen with consolidation.
*Collapse of a lung segment*
- **Collapse of a lung segment (atelectasis)** would result in **dullness to percussion** and **decreased or absent breath sounds**.
- **Tactile fremitus** would be **decreased** over the affected area, not increased, because the collapsed lung tissue does not transmit vibrations as effectively.
Question 20: A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic after experiencing what she describes as an odd episode of tingling in her fingers and the sensation of smelling sour milk. She denies loss of consciousness, confusion, or incontinence. She also denies a history of head trauma or the ingestion of toxic substances. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), the heart rate is 98/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, the blood pressure is 100/75 mm Hg, and the O2 saturation is 100% on room air. The physical exam, including a full neurologic and cardiac assessment, demonstrates no abnormal findings. Laboratory findings are shown. Brain MRI does not indicate any areas of infarction or hemorrhage. ECG is normal, and EEG is pending.
BUN 15 mg/dL
pCO2 40 mmHg
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Serum chloride 103 mmol/L
Serum potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Total calcium 2.3 mmol/L
Magnesium 1.7 mEq/L
Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Glycosylated hemoglobin 5.5%
Total cholesterol 4 mmol/L
Bicarbonate (HCO3) 19 mmol/L
Urine toxicology screen is negative. What kind of seizure is most likely being described?
A. Complex partial
B. Absence
C. Myoclonic
D. Tonic-clonic
E. Simple partial (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Simple partial***
- The patient's description of **tingling in her fingers** (somatosensory symptom) and the **sensation of smelling sour milk** (olfactory hallucination) are characteristic features of a **simple partial seizure**.
- **Consciousness remains intact** during simple partial seizures, which aligns with the patient's denial of loss of consciousness or confusion.
*Complex partial*
- **Complex partial seizures** involve an **alteration or loss of consciousness**, which the patient explicitly denies.
- While they can include focal symptoms, the defining feature of a complex partial seizure is impaired awareness, which is not present here.
*Absence*
- **Absence seizures** typically present as brief episodes of **staring spells** or a sudden cessation of activity, often seen in children.
- They do not typically involve focal sensory or olfactory symptoms like tingling or smelling sour milk.
*Myoclonic*
- **Myoclonic seizures** are characterized by **sudden, brief, shock-like jerks** of a muscle or a group of muscles.
- The patient's symptoms of tingling and olfactory hallucination are not consistent with the motor manifestations of myoclonic seizures.
*Tonic-clonic*
- **Tonic-clonic seizures** involve a loss of consciousness, followed by a tonic (stiffening) phase and then a clonic (jerking) phase, often with postictal confusion.
- The patient denies loss of consciousness and her symptoms are focal and much less dramatic than a generalized tonic-clonic event.