A 40-year-old woman presents to her physician's home with a headache. She describes it as severe and states that her symptoms have not been improving despite her appointment yesterday at the office. Thus, she came to her physician's house on the weekend for help. The patient has been diagnosed with migraine headaches that have persisted for the past 6 months and states that her current symptoms feel like her previous headaches with a severity of 3/10. She has been prescribed multiple medications but is generally non-compliant with therapy. She is requesting an exam and urgent treatment for her symptoms. Which of the following is the best response from the physician?
Q2
A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was in the front seat and unrestrained driver in a head on collision. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 152/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a young man who opens his eyes spontaneously and is looking around. He answers questions with inappropriate responses but discernible words. He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement. Which of the following is this patient's Glasgow coma scale?
Q3
A 45-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department by the police. He was found intoxicated and passed out in a library. The patient has a past medical history of IV drug abuse, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and malnutrition. The patient has been hospitalized previously for multiple episodes of pancreatitis and sepsis. Currently, the patient is minimally responsive and only withdraws his extremities in response to painful stimuli. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 90/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for tachycardia, a diastolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, and bilateral crackles on pulmonary exam. The patient is started on IV fluids, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
Leukocyte count: 11,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 297,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 28 mEq/L
BUN: 33 mg/dL
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.7 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
PT: 20 seconds
aPTT: 60 seconds
AST: 1,010 U/L
ALT: 950 U/L
The patient is admitted to the medical floor. Five days later, the patient's neurological status has improved. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are repeated as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 100 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
PT: 40 seconds
aPTT: 90 seconds
AST: 150 U/L
ALT: 90 U/L
Which of the following is the best description of this patient’s current status?
Q4
You are the team physician for an NBA basketball team. On the morning of an important playoff game, an EKG of a star player, Mr. P, shows findings suspicious for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Mr. P is an otherwise healthy, fit, professional athlete.
The playoff game that night is the most important of Mr. P's career. When you inform the coach that you are thinking of restricting Mr. P's participation, he threatens to fire you. Later that day you receive a phone call from the owner of the team threatening a lawsuit should you restrict Mr. P's ability to play. Mr. P states that he will be playing in the game "if it's the last thing I do."
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q5
A research group wants to assess the safety and toxicity profile of a new drug. A clinical trial is conducted with 20 volunteers to estimate the maximum tolerated dose and monitor the apparent toxicity of the drug. The study design is best described as which of the following phases of a clinical trial?
Q6
In a randomized controlled trial studying a new treatment, the primary endpoint (mortality) occurred in 14.4% of the treatment group and 16.7% of the control group. Which of the following represents the number of patients needed to treat to save one life, based on the primary endpoint?
Q7
A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
Simulation practice techniques US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 40-year-old woman presents to her physician's home with a headache. She describes it as severe and states that her symptoms have not been improving despite her appointment yesterday at the office. Thus, she came to her physician's house on the weekend for help. The patient has been diagnosed with migraine headaches that have persisted for the past 6 months and states that her current symptoms feel like her previous headaches with a severity of 3/10. She has been prescribed multiple medications but is generally non-compliant with therapy. She is requesting an exam and urgent treatment for her symptoms. Which of the following is the best response from the physician?
A. It sounds to me like you are in a lot of pain. Let me see how I can help you.
B. Do not come to my house when you have medical problems. You should make an appointment.
C. Your symptoms seem severe. Let me perform a quick exam to see if everything is alright.
D. Unfortunately, I cannot examine and treat you at this time. Please set up an appointment to see me in my office. (Correct Answer)
E. You should go to the emergency department for your symptoms rather than coming here.
Explanation: ***Unfortunately, I cannot examine and treat you at this time. Please set up an appointment to see me in my office.***
- This response appropriately **maintains professional boundaries** by declining an unscheduled visit to the physician's private residence.
- While house calls are not inherently unethical, this situation is problematic because: the physician is unprepared, lacks proper medical equipment and documentation resources at home, and the patient's symptoms (3/10 severity, chronic migraine) do not constitute an emergency.
- This response is **empathetic yet firm**, redirecting the patient to appropriate care settings where proper examination, documentation, and treatment can occur.
- Setting this boundary prevents establishing an inappropriate precedent for future unscheduled home visits.
*It sounds to me like you are in a lot of pain. Let me see how I can help you.*
- While showing empathy, agreeing to treat the patient at home without preparation creates problems: **lack of proper medical equipment, diagnostic tools, and documentation resources**.
- This action **blurs professional boundaries** and sets an inappropriate precedent for future unscheduled patient interactions at the physician's home.
- The patient's severity (3/10) and chronic nature of symptoms do not justify an urgent unscheduled home examination.
*Do not come to my house when you have medical problems. You should make an appointment.*
- This response is **unprofessional and lacks empathy**, potentially damaging the patient-physician relationship.
- While the message about boundaries is appropriate, the **harsh tone** fails to provide compassionate guidance for the patient's concerns.
*Your symptoms seem severe. Let me perform a quick exam to see if everything is alright.*
- Despite acknowledging the patient's concern, performing an unscheduled exam at home is **inappropriate** due to lack of preparation, proper equipment, and resources for thorough assessment.
- This decision could lead to **inadequate care and documentation issues**, as the physician would be practicing in an unplanned setting without proper resources.
*You should go to the emergency department for your symptoms rather than coming here.*
- While this directs the patient to a medical facility, the patient has **3/10 severity** chronic migraine symptoms that do not constitute an emergency, making the ED an **inappropriate over-triage**.
- This response may come across as dismissive and could strain the patient-physician relationship, though it does maintain appropriate boundaries.
Question 2: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was in the front seat and unrestrained driver in a head on collision. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 152/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a young man who opens his eyes spontaneously and is looking around. He answers questions with inappropriate responses but discernible words. He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement. Which of the following is this patient's Glasgow coma scale?
A. 9
B. 15
C. 7
D. 11 (Correct Answer)
E. 13
Explanation: ***11***
- **Eye-opening (E)**: The patient opens his eyes spontaneously, scoring **E4**.
- **Verbal response (V)**: He gives inappropriate responses but discernible words, scoring **V3**.
- **Motor response (M)**: He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement, scoring **M4**.
- Therefore, the total Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is **E4 + V3 + M4 = 11**.
*9*
- This score would imply a lower verbal or motor response, such as **incomprehensible sounds (V2)** or **abnormal flexion (M3)**, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.
- For example, E4 + V2 + M3 would equal 9.
*15*
- A GCS of 15 indicates **normal neurological function**, meaning the patient would be fully oriented, obey commands, and open eyes spontaneously, which is not the case here.
- This score is for a patient who is fully conscious and responsive.
*7*
- A GCS of 7 suggests a **severe brain injury**, which would typically present with a much poorer response, such as **no verbal response (V1)** or **abnormal extension (M2)**.
- For example, E4 + V1 + M2 would equal 7.
*13*
- This score would mean a higher level of consciousness, such as **confused conversation (V4)** or **localizing pain (M5)**, which is better than the patient's described responses.
- For example, E4 + V4 + M5 would equal 13.
Question 3: A 45-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department by the police. He was found intoxicated and passed out in a library. The patient has a past medical history of IV drug abuse, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and malnutrition. The patient has been hospitalized previously for multiple episodes of pancreatitis and sepsis. Currently, the patient is minimally responsive and only withdraws his extremities in response to painful stimuli. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 90/48 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical exam is notable for tachycardia, a diastolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, and bilateral crackles on pulmonary exam. The patient is started on IV fluids, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
Leukocyte count: 11,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 297,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 28 mEq/L
BUN: 33 mg/dL
Glucose: 60 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.7 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.7 mg/dL
PT: 20 seconds
aPTT: 60 seconds
AST: 1,010 U/L
ALT: 950 U/L
The patient is admitted to the medical floor. Five days later, the patient's neurological status has improved. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Laboratory values are repeated as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 32%
Leukocyte count: 9,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 100 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL
PT: 40 seconds
aPTT: 90 seconds
AST: 150 U/L
ALT: 90 U/L
Which of the following is the best description of this patient’s current status?
A. Recovery from acute renal failure
B. Acute renal failure
C. Recovery from ischemic liver disease
D. Fulminant liver failure (Correct Answer)
E. Recovery from acute alcoholic liver disease
Explanation: ***Fulminant liver failure***
- The patient's **prolonged PT (40 seconds)** and **aPTT (90 seconds)** after 5 days, despite improvements in other parameters, indicate a severe impairment in hepatic synthesis of clotting factors, which is a hallmark of **fulminant liver failure**.
- The initial presentation with **elevated AST/ALT (over 1000 U/L)** coupled with **encephalopathy (minimally responsive)** and subsequent worsening coagulopathy points towards acute liver failure, even if transaminases are improving.
*Recovery from acute renal failure*
- While the initial **creatinine (1.7 mg/dL)** was mildly elevated, it remained largely unchanged (1.6 mg/dL) after 5 days, indicating no significant acute renal failure or subsequent recovery.
- The patient’s fluid resuscitation and improved hemodynamics would likely lead to a more pronounced improvement in creatinine if significant acute renal failure had occurred and was recovering.
*Acute renal failure*
- The creatinine level, while slightly elevated, does not meet the criteria for significant **acute renal failure** (e.g., a >50% increase from baseline or a >0.3 mg/dL increase within 48 hours relative to his baseline, which is unknown but likely lower than 1.7 mg/dL given his other conditions).
- Furthermore, if true acute renal failure was present on admission, 5 days later with improved vitals, we would expect a clearer trend of either worsening or recovering creatinine, neither of which is strongly evident here.
*Recovery from ischemic liver disease*
- While the initial very high transaminases (AST 1010, ALT 950) could suggest **ischemic liver injury**, the subsequent significant prolongation of **PT and aPTT** (from 20 to 40 seconds and 60 to 90 seconds, respectively) indicates worsening synthetic dysfunction, not recovery.
- Recovery from ischemic liver disease would typically show improving coagulation parameters alongside decreasing transaminases.
*Recovery from acute alcoholic liver disease*
- Similar to recovery from ischemic liver disease, recovery from **acute alcoholic liver disease** would involve an improvement in liver synthetic function, reflected by a **shortening of PT/aPTT**, not a progressive prolongation as seen here.
- The patient's initial presentation is consistent with acute alcoholic hepatitis or other acute liver injury given his history and high LFTs, but the subsequent worsening coagulopathy rules out recovery.
Question 4: You are the team physician for an NBA basketball team. On the morning of an important playoff game, an EKG of a star player, Mr. P, shows findings suspicious for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). Mr. P is an otherwise healthy, fit, professional athlete.
The playoff game that night is the most important of Mr. P's career. When you inform the coach that you are thinking of restricting Mr. P's participation, he threatens to fire you. Later that day you receive a phone call from the owner of the team threatening a lawsuit should you restrict Mr. P's ability to play. Mr. P states that he will be playing in the game "if it's the last thing I do."
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Allow Mr. P to play against medical advice
B. Consult with a psychiatrist to have Mr. P committed
C. Call the police and have Mr. P arrested
D. Schedule a repeat EKG for the following morning
E. Educate Mr. P about the risks of HCM and restrict him from playing pending cardiology evaluation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Educate Mr. P about the risks of HCM and restrict him from playing pending cardiology evaluation***
- The physician's primary ethical duty is to **protect the patient's well-being** (beneficence and non-maleficence), especially when there is a significant risk of sudden cardiac death associated with **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)** during strenuous activity.
- While navigating external pressures, the physician must uphold professional standards by **educating the patient** about the risks and **restricting high-risk activities** until a definitive diagnosis and management plan from a cardiologist can be established.
*Allow Mr. P to play against medical advice*
- Allowing Mr. P to play against medical advice would be a **breach of the physician's ethical duty** to prevent harm, especially given the high risk of **sudden cardiac death** associated with HCM in athletes.
- This action could also expose the physician to **legal liability** should Mr. P suffer an adverse cardiac event during the game.
*Consult with a psychiatrist to have Mr. P committed*
- There is no indication that Mr. P is a danger to himself or others due to a **mental health crisis** requiring commitment; his desire to play is driven by external pressures and personal ambition, not a psychiatric condition.
- Committing Mr. P against his will would be an **unwarranted and extreme measure**, infringing on his autonomy without appropriate medical justification.
*Call the police and have Mr. P arrested*
- Calling the police to arrest Mr. P is an **inappropriate and disproportionate response** to a medical disagreement, as it does not address the medical issue or the ethical obligations of the physician.
- This action would severely damage the **physician-patient relationship** and would not be a valid legal or ethical approach to managing the situation.
*Schedule a repeat EKG for the following morning*
- Delaying further diagnostic evaluation until the following morning keeps Mr. P’s participation in the immediate playoff game an option, despite the **urgent suspicion of HCM**, which carries a high risk of **sudden cardiac death during exertion**.
- A repeat EKG alone is insufficient; **immediate cardiac evaluation** (e.g., echocardiogram) is necessary to confirm or rule out HCM before allowing him to play.
Question 5: A research group wants to assess the safety and toxicity profile of a new drug. A clinical trial is conducted with 20 volunteers to estimate the maximum tolerated dose and monitor the apparent toxicity of the drug. The study design is best described as which of the following phases of a clinical trial?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase III
C. Phase V
D. Phase II
E. Phase I (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phase I***
- **Phase I clinical trials** involve a small group of healthy volunteers (typically 20-100) to primarily assess **drug safety**, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects.
- The main goal is to establish the **maximum tolerated dose (MTD)** and evaluate the drug's pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles.
*Phase 0*
- **Phase 0 trials** are exploratory studies conducted in a very small number of subjects (10-15) to gather preliminary data on a drug's **pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics** in humans.
- They involve microdoses, not intended to have therapeutic effects, and thus cannot determine toxicity or MTD.
*Phase III*
- **Phase III trials** are large-scale studies involving hundreds to thousands of patients to confirm the drug's **efficacy**, monitor side effects, compare it to standard treatments, and collect information that will allow the drug to be used safely.
- These trials are conducted after safety and initial efficacy have been established in earlier phases.
*Phase V*
- "Phase V" is not a standard, recognized phase in the traditional clinical trial classification (Phase 0, I, II, III, IV).
- This term might be used in some non-standard research contexts or for post-marketing studies that go beyond Phase IV surveillance, but it is not a formal phase for initial drug development.
*Phase II*
- **Phase II trials** involve several hundred patients with the condition the drug is intended to treat, focusing on **drug efficacy** and further evaluating safety.
- While safety is still monitored, the primary objective shifts to determining if the drug works for its intended purpose and at what dose.
Question 6: In a randomized controlled trial studying a new treatment, the primary endpoint (mortality) occurred in 14.4% of the treatment group and 16.7% of the control group. Which of the following represents the number of patients needed to treat to save one life, based on the primary endpoint?
A. 1/(0.144 - 0.167)
B. 1/(0.167 - 0.144) (Correct Answer)
C. 1/(0.300 - 0.267)
D. 1/(0.267 - 0.300)
E. 1/(0.136 - 0.118)
Explanation: ***1/(0.167 - 0.144)***
- The **Number Needed to Treat (NNT)** is calculated as **1 / Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)**.
- The **Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)** is the difference between the event rate in the control group (16.7%) and the event rate in the treatment group (14.4%), which is **0.167 - 0.144**.
*1/(0.144 - 0.167)*
- This calculation represents 1 divided by the **Absolute Risk Increase**, which would be relevant if the treatment increased mortality.
- The **NNT should always be a positive value**, indicating the number of patients to treat to prevent one adverse event.
*1/(0.300 - 0.267)*
- This option uses arbitrary numbers (0.300 and 0.267) that do not correspond to the given **mortality rates** in the problem.
- It does not reflect the correct calculation for **absolute risk reduction** based on the provided data.
*1/(0.267 - 0.300)*
- This option also uses arbitrary numbers not derived from the problem's data, and it would result in a **negative value** for the denominator.
- The difference between event rates of 0.267 and 0.300 is not present in the given information for this study.
*1/(0.136 - 0.118)*
- This calculation uses arbitrary numbers (0.136 and 0.118) that are not consistent with the reported **mortality rates** of 14.4% and 16.7%.
- These values do not represent the **Absolute Risk Reduction** required for calculating NNT in this specific scenario.
Question 7: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
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