Pediatric Urology Basics — MCQs

10 questions

A neonate presenting with ascites is diagnosed with urinary ascites. What is the most common cause?

Which of the following is NOT a feature of hypospadias?

A 3-year-old child presents to the OPD with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, poor urinary stream, and difficulty voiding. The radiological image is shown below. What is the most appropriate management?

A one-year-old male child presented with a poor urinary stream since birth. The initial investigation of choice for evaluation is:

Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a male infant is -

A 4-year-old child was brought to the hospital with right impalpable testis. During diagnostic laparoscopy for undescended testis, there are blind testicular vessels. What should be done next?

When do we have to start antibiotics to prevent post-operative infection?

Q9Easy

What is the most common site for extramammary Paget's disease?

Q10Medium

Regarding ectopia vesicae, which of the following is true EXCEPT?

Pediatric Urology Basics Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A neonate presenting with ascites is diagnosed with urinary ascites. What is the most common cause?

A. Bilateral PUJ obstruction
B. Infant polycystic kidney disease
C. Posterior urethral valve (Correct Answer)
D. Meatal stenosis

Explanation: ***Posterior urethral valve*** - **Posterior urethral valve (PUV)** is the most common cause of **urinary tract obstruction** in male neonates, leading to severe bladder outflow obstruction, often resulting in **urinary ascites** due to urinary extravasation. - The obstruction causes high pressure in the bladder and urinary tract, which can lead to rupture of the urinary system (e.g., bladder, renal pelvis, ureters) and leakage of urine into the peritoneal cavity. *Bilateral PUJ obstruction* - While **pelvic-ureteric junction (PUJ) obstruction** can cause hydronephrosis, bilateral obstruction leading to urinary ascites is less common than PUV. - PUJ obstruction primarily affects the flow of urine from the kidney to the ureter, and although severe, is less likely to cause widespread urinary extravasation into the peritoneum compared to distal urethral obstruction. *Infant polycystic kidney disease* - **Infant polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)** is characterized by enlarged kidneys with numerous cysts, leading to renal dysfunction and often pulmonary hypoplasia. - While ARPKD can cause significant renal pathology, it does not typically lead to urinary ascites through obstructive mechanisms; ascites, if present, is usually due to liver fibrosis or heart failure, not urinary obstruction. *Meatal stenosis* - **Meatal stenosis** is a narrowing of the urethral opening, which can cause urinary obstruction but is usually a less severe and more distal obstruction compared to PUV. - It might cause symptoms like a thin stream or dysuria but is rarely severe enough in neonates to cause back pressure leading to urinary extravasation and ascites.

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a feature of hypospadias?

A. Phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin)
B. Hooded prepuce (incomplete foreskin covering the glans)
C. Chordee (downward curvature of the penis)
D. Undescended testes (Cryptorchidism) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Undescended testes (Cryptorchidism)*** - **Cryptorchidism is NOT a feature of hypospadias** - it is a **separate congenital anomaly** involving failure of testicular descent into the scrotum. - While these conditions can **coexist** (seen in ~9-15% of boys with hypospadias), cryptorchidism is not part of the hypospadias malformation itself. - Hypospadias is defined by **abnormal ventral urethral opening**, whereas cryptorchidism involves the **reproductive system descent**, making them distinct entities. *Chordee (downward curvature of the penis)* - **Chordee IS a feature of hypospadias**, present in 10-50% of cases, caused by fibrous tissue or skin tethering that creates **ventral penile curvature**. - It often accompanies more proximal/severe forms of hypospadias and requires **surgical correction** to prevent functional problems. *Hooded prepuce (incomplete foreskin covering the glans)* - **Hooded prepuce IS a hallmark feature of hypospadias**, resulting from **ventral deficiency of foreskin** with excess dorsal tissue. - This classic "dorsal hood" appearance is a **key diagnostic sign** and occurs due to incomplete fusion of urethral folds. *Phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin)* - **Phimosis is NOT a typical feature of hypospadias** - patients with hypospadias usually have a hooded prepuce with **ventral deficiency**, not the circular constriction characteristic of phimosis. - However, the **abnormal foreskin anatomy** in hypospadias may occasionally present difficulty with retraction, though this differs from true pathological phimosis.

Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a feature of hypospadias?

A. Chordee
B. Hooded prepuce
C. Cryptorchidism (Correct Answer)
D. Ventral urethral meatus

Explanation: ***Cryptorchidism*** - While **cryptorchidism** (undescended testes) can sometimes co-occur with hypospadias (in up to 10% of cases, especially severe proximal types), it is **NOT a defining feature or characteristic of hypospadias itself**. - Hypospadias is primarily a malformation of the urethra and penis, whereas cryptorchidism is a distinct abnormality of testicular descent. - They are separate congenital anomalies that may share common developmental pathways but are not causally related. *Chordee* - **Chordee** is a common associated feature of hypospadias, present in approximately 15-20% of cases. - It is characterized by ventral curvature of the penis, particularly noticeable during erection, due to fibrous tissue tethering the ventral aspect. - Often requires surgical correction along with hypospadias repair. *Hooded prepuce* - A **hooded prepuce** (dorsal hood) is a **classic and consistent feature** of hypospadias, present in the majority of cases. - The foreskin does not fully encircle the glans but instead forms a hood on the dorsal aspect, with ventral deficiency. - This occurs due to incomplete fusion of the urethral folds and arrested development of the ventral foreskin. *Ventral urethral meatus* - A **ventral urethral meatus** (urethral opening on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip) is the **defining feature** of hypospadias. - The location can vary from glandular (on the glans) to coronal, penile shaft, penoscrotal, or perineal positions. - This is the primary anatomical abnormality that characterizes the condition.

Question 4: A 3-year-old child presents to the OPD with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, poor urinary stream, and difficulty voiding. The radiological image is shown below. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Endoscopic ablation (Correct Answer)
B. Dilation of urethra
C. Dilation of urethra and bladder
D. Conservative
E. Vesicostomy

Explanation: ***Endoscopic ablation*** - The image shows a distended bladder with a dilated, elongated posterior urethra and a narrow stream of contrast beyond the bladder neck, characteristic findings of **posterior urethral valves (PUV)**. - **Endoscopic ablation (incision or fulguration)** of the valves is the definitive treatment for PUV to relieve obstruction and prevent further kidney damage. - This is the **gold standard primary treatment** for PUV in children who are large enough to undergo the procedure safely. *Dilation of urethra* - **Dilation** is generally ineffective because PUV are folds of tissue that require incision rather than simple stretching. - This approach does not address the underlying anatomical obstruction caused by the valves and could potentially cause damage to the urethra. *Dilation of urethra and bladder* - **Dilation of the urethra** is not an effective treatment for PUV. The bladder is already dilated due to the obstruction, and further dilation would not resolve the issue. - This approach would not remove the obstruction and could worsen bladder function or lead to further complications like reflux. *Conservative* - **Conservative management** with watchful waiting is not appropriate for PUV, as untreated obstruction can lead to progressive and irreversible kidney damage, bladder dysfunction, and recurrent UTIs. - Timely intervention is crucial to preserve renal function and improve long-term outcomes in boys with PUV. *Vesicostomy* - **Vesicostomy** (temporary bladder diversion) is reserved for specific scenarios such as neonates or very young infants too small for safe endoscopic ablation, severe hydronephrosis with renal failure, or failed primary ablation. - In this **3-year-old child**, endoscopic ablation is preferred as the primary definitive treatment rather than temporary diversion, which would require a second procedure later.

Question 5: A one-year-old male child presented with a poor urinary stream since birth. The initial investigation of choice for evaluation is:

A. USG bladder
B. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG) (Correct Answer)
C. Uroflowmetry
D. Intravenous urography

Explanation: ***Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)*** - A **one-year-old male child with poor urinary stream since birth** is highly suggestive of **posterior urethral valves (PUV)**, the most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male infants. - **VCUG is the investigation of choice** for diagnosing PUV as it directly visualizes the posterior urethra during voiding and can demonstrate the characteristic findings: dilated posterior urethra, valve leaflets, bladder trabeculation, and vesicoureteral reflux. - While it involves catheterization and radiation, in this classic presentation, VCUG provides definitive diagnosis and is essential for surgical planning. *USG bladder* - Ultrasound is a useful **non-invasive screening tool** that can detect secondary findings such as hydronephrosis, bladder wall thickening, and increased post-void residual. - However, **USG cannot visualize the urethral valves** themselves and cannot definitively diagnose PUV. - In practice, many centers may perform ultrasound first, but it must be followed by VCUG for definitive diagnosis in this clinical scenario. *Uroflowmetry* - This test measures the **rate of urine flow** and requires patient cooperation with voiding. - A **one-year-old child cannot reliably follow instructions** to perform uroflowmetry. - It is more useful in older, cooperative children and adults. *Intravenous urography* - **Intravenous urography (IVU)** involves contrast administration and multiple X-rays to visualize the urinary tract. - It has been largely **replaced by ultrasound and CT urography** due to better imaging quality and safety profile. - IVU does not adequately visualize the urethra or diagnose urethral pathology like PUV.

Question 6: Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a male infant is -

A. Stone
B. Anterior urethral valves
C. Stricture
D. Posterior urethral valves (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Posterior urethral valves*** - **Posterior urethral valves (PUV)** are the most common cause of significant **urinary tract obstruction** in male infants and are a congenital anomaly. - They are a membrane-like structure in the **posterior urethra** that obstructs urine outflow from the bladder. *Stone* - **Urinary stones** are a less common cause of obstruction in infants and are often associated with metabolic disorders or anatomical abnormalities. - While they can cause obstruction, they are not the most frequent cause in male infants. *Anterior urethral valves* - **Anterior urethral valves (AUV)** are a much rarer cause of urethral obstruction than PUV. - They occur more distally in the urethra and typically present with a **dilated anterior urethra**. *Stricture* - **Urethral strictures** in infants are usually acquired due to trauma, instrumentation, or infection, rather than being congenital. - They are less common than PUV as a primary cause of congenital urinary obstruction.

Question 7: A 4-year-old child was brought to the hospital with right impalpable testis. During diagnostic laparoscopy for undescended testis, there are blind testicular vessels. What should be done next?

A. Abdominal exploration
B. Inguinal exploration
C. Scrotal exploration
D. Nothing is to be done (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Nothing is to be done*** - The presence of **blind-ending testicular vessels** on diagnostic laparoscopy is diagnostic of **vanishing testis syndrome** (testicular regression syndrome). - This finding indicates that the testis underwent **atrophy and resorption** during fetal development or early infancy, and **no viable testicular tissue remains**. - The blind vessels represent **remnant vascular structures** where the testis once existed, confirming absence of testicular tissue beyond that point. - **No further surgical exploration is required** as the laparoscopy has already provided definitive diagnosis - the testis is absent, not located elsewhere. - This completes the diagnostic and therapeutic management for this condition. *Inguinal exploration* - This would be indicated if the testicular vessels were seen **entering the internal inguinal ring**, suggesting an inguinal or high scrotal location. - With **blind-ending vessels**, the testis is confirmed absent, making inguinal exploration unnecessary and futile. - Inguinal exploration would find no testicular tissue and subject the child to unnecessary additional surgery. *Abdominal exploration* - This is not needed as **diagnostic laparoscopy has already visualized the abdomen** and identified blind vessels. - If vessels were patent and leading to an intra-abdominal testis, orchidopexy would be performed laparoscopically. - Blind vessels rule out intra-abdominal testis location. *Scrotal exploration* - This approach is only appropriate for **palpable undescended testes** in the superficial inguinal pouch or high scrotum. - The testis is **impalpable** and laparoscopy shows **no testicular tissue exists**, making scrotal exploration illogical and non-contributory.

Question 8: When do we have to start antibiotics to prevent post-operative infection?

A. 1 week before surgery
B. 2 days before surgery
C. After surgery
D. 30-60 minutes before incision (up to 24 hours post-op) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***30-60 minutes before incision (up to 24 hours post-op)*** - Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis (SAP) should be administered **30-60 minutes before surgical incision** to ensure adequate tissue and serum concentrations at the time of incision. - This timing allows optimal drug distribution to surgical tissues, which is crucial for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs). - For most clean and clean-contaminated surgeries, prophylaxis should be limited to a **single dose** or continued for **maximum 24 hours post-operatively** as per WHO and CDC guidelines. - Prolonged post-operative antibiotics beyond 24 hours do **not** reduce infection rates and increase the risk of **antibiotic resistance** and **adverse effects**. *1 week before surgery* - Administering antibiotics this far in advance is **unnecessary** and **ineffective** for surgical prophylaxis. - It increases the risk of **antibiotic resistance** and does not guarantee adequate drug levels at the time of incision. - Pre-operative antibiotic use should be avoided unless treating an active infection. *2 days before surgery* - This timeframe is too early to achieve prophylactic benefit during the surgical procedure. - Prolonged pre-operative use promotes **bacterial resistance** without providing additional protection. - Drug levels will not be optimal at the time of incision due to metabolism and excretion. *After surgery* - Starting antibiotics **after surgical incision** is **too late** for prophylaxis as contamination has already occurred. - Post-operative initiation is considered **therapeutic treatment** for established infection, not prevention. - The critical window for prophylaxis is the period from skin incision to wound closure.

Question 9: What is the most common site for extramammary Paget's disease?

A. Vulva (Correct Answer)
B. Vagina
C. Penis
D. Anus

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Extramammary Paget’s Disease (EMPD)** is a rare intraepithelial adenocarcinoma that arises in skin areas rich in apocrine sweat glands. **Why Vulva is Correct:** The **vulva** is the most common site for EMPD, accounting for approximately **65% of all cases**. It typically presents in postmenopausal Caucasian women as a well-demarcated, erythematous, "eczematous-looking" plaque that may be itchy or burning. Histologically, it is characterized by the presence of **Paget cells** (large cells with clear, mucinous cytoplasm) within the epidermis. Unlike mammary Paget’s disease, which is almost always associated with an underlying breast malignancy, EMPD is associated with an underlying internal malignancy (like urogenital or colorectal cancer) in only about 20–30% of cases. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Vagina:** Primary Paget’s disease of the vagina is extremely rare; it usually occurs as a secondary extension from vulvar disease. * **Penis/Scrotum:** While the male genitalia are the second most common site for EMPD, they are significantly less frequently involved than the vulva. * **Anus:** Perianal Paget’s disease is the third most common site. It is clinically significant because it has a much higher association with underlying visceral (colorectal) malignancy compared to vulvar EMPD. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Staining:** Paget cells are **PAS positive**, **Alcian blue positive**, and **Mucicarmine positive** (indicating mucin production). * **Immunohistochemistry (IHC):** Typically **CK7 positive** and **CEA positive**. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Often misdiagnosed as chronic eczema, psoriasis, or fungal infection due to its "strawberries and cream" appearance. * **Management:** Wide local excision is the treatment of choice, though recurrence rates are high due to multifocal "skip" lesions.

Question 10: Regarding ectopia vesicae, which of the following is true EXCEPT?

A. Carcinoma of the bladder may occur.
B. There is a ventral curvature of the penis. (Correct Answer)
C. There is incontinence of urine.
D. There is visible uretero-vesical efflux.

Explanation: **Explanation** Ectopia vesicae (Bladder Exstrophy) is a complex congenital malformation resulting from a failure of the infra-umbilical anterior abdominal wall and bladder neck to fuse. **Why Option B is the correct answer (The Exception):** In ectopia vesicae, the penis is typically short and broad with a **dorsal curvature** (chordee), not a ventral one. This is because the urethral groove is open on the dorsal surface (Epispadias), and the corpora cavernosa are separated and shortened, pulling the penis upward toward the abdominal wall. Ventral curvature is characteristic of Hypospadias, not Exstrophy-Epispadias complex. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (True):** Chronic irritation and metaplasia of the exposed bladder mucosa significantly increase the risk of malignancy, most commonly **Adenocarcinoma** (due to glandular metaplasia), unlike the usual transitional cell carcinoma. * **Option C (True):** Since the bladder neck and sphincteric mechanisms are malformed and open, there is no reservoir function, leading to continuous **total incontinence**. * **Option D (True):** Because the posterior bladder wall (trigone) is exposed to the exterior, the ureteric orifices are visible, and one can directly observe the intermittent **efflux of urine** from them. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Associated skeletal finding:** Widening of the symphysis pubis (diastasis). * **Umbilicus:** Positioned lower than normal. * **Management:** Primary closure is ideally performed within 48–72 hours of birth. * **Most common malignancy:** Adenocarcinoma of the bladder. * **Key distinction:** Epispadias is always present in bladder exstrophy.

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