Mass Casualty Management — MCQs
ICD-10 chapter 1 describes?
Black color code is used in four color code systems of triage management in disaster for:
What is triage for?
Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as
What is the correct chronological order in the disaster management cycle?
Patients requiring immediate life-threatening care are categorized under which of the following triage?
In splenic injury, conservative management is done in which of the following?
In splenic injury conservative management is done in :
Traumatic haemothorax is best managed by:
In the damage control resuscitation protocol, which location is primarily focused on correcting physiological derangements after initial hemorrhage control?
Mass Casualty Management Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: ICD-10 chapter 1 describes?
- A. Poisoning and consequences
- B. Psychiatric diseases
- C. Diseases of the nervous system
- D. Infectious and parasitic diseases (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Infectious and parasitic diseases*** - **ICD-10 Chapter 1** specifically categorizes codes related to **infectious and parasitic diseases**, ranging from A00 to B99. - This chapter covers a broad spectrum of conditions caused by microorganisms and parasites, such as bacterial, viral, fungal, and protozoal infections. *Poisoning and consequences* - **Poisoning and certain other consequences of external causes** are covered in ICD-10 Chapter 19, with codes typically ranging from T36-T65 for poisoning by drugs, medicaments, and biological substances. - This chapter focuses on injuries, poisoning, and certain other consequences of external causes, not infectious diseases. *Psychiatric diseases* - **Mental and behavioral disorders** (often referred to as psychiatric diseases) are described in ICD-10 Chapter 5, with codes ranging from F00 to F99. - This chapter includes conditions such as mood disorders, anxiety disorders, schizophrenia, and substance-related disorders. *Diseases of the nervous system* - **Diseases of the nervous system** are categorized in ICD-10 Chapter 6, with codes ranging from G00 to G99. - This chapter covers conditions affecting the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and neuromuscular junctions, such as stroke, epilepsy, and Parkinson's disease.
Question 2: Black color code is used in four color code systems of triage management in disaster for:
- A. Dead or moribund patients (Correct Answer)
- B. High priority patients
- C. Ambulatory patients
- D. Low priority patients
Explanation: ***Dead or moribund patients*** - The **black color code** in triage signifies patients who are either deceased or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely, even with immediate intervention. - These patients are typically assigned **comfort care** as resources are prioritized for those with a higher chance of survival. *High priority patients* - **High priority patients**, who require immediate medical attention to survive, are typically designated with a **red color code**. - These individuals have life-threatening injuries but still have a good prognosis if treated promptly. *Ambulatory patients* - **Ambulatory patients** who have minor injuries and can walk are usually assigned a **green color code**. - They are considered "walking wounded" and can often wait for treatment until more critical patients are stabilized. *Low priority patients* - **Low priority patients** or those with significant injuries but whose conditions are stable and not immediately life-threatening are typically designated with a **yellow color code**. - They require medical attention but can safely wait for a few hours without significant risk of deterioration.
Question 3: What is triage for?
- A. To rehabilitate following a disaster
- B. To prepare for a disaster
- C. To classify the priority of treatment (Correct Answer)
- D. To assess the impact of a disaster
Explanation: ***To classify the priority of treatment*** - **Triage** is the process of sorting patients to determine the **priority** of their treatment based on the **severity** of their condition and the likelihood of recovery, especially when resources are limited. - This system ensures that those who need immediate care most urgently receive it first, maximizing the number of lives saved. *To rehabilitate following a disaster* - **Rehabilitation** focuses on restoring health and functional abilities after an injury or illness, which occurs **post-treatment**, not as the initial classification of need. - This phase of care happens *after* triage has been completed and immediate medical needs have been addressed. *To prepare for a disaster* - **Disaster preparedness** involves planning and training *before* a disaster strikes to mitigate its effects and ensure an effective response. - Triage is a **response mechanism** utilized *during* or *immediately after* a disaster, not a preparatory measure. *To assess the impact of a disaster* - **Impact assessment** involves evaluating the damage, casualties, and overall consequences of a disaster. - While disaster impact assessment helps guide overall response, triage is specifically about **individual patient assessment** and prioritization for medical care.
Question 4: Steps in review of patient's history during secondary survey of trauma care can be summarised as
- A. TRIAGE
- B. ABCDE
- C. AMPLE (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***AMPLE*** - The **AMPLE history** is a mnemonic used during the **secondary survey** in trauma care to gather crucial patient information - It stands for **Allergies, Medications, Past medical history/Pregnancy, Last meal, and Events** surrounding the injury. *TRIAGE* - **Triage** is the process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the likelihood of benefit from immediate treatment. - It is an initial assessment done to determine the urgency of care, not a detailed historical review for a single patient. *ABCDE* - The **ABCDE approach** (**Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure**) is part of the **primary survey** in trauma care. - It focuses on identifying and managing immediate life-threatening conditions. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **AMPLE** specifically describes the historical review process during the secondary survey.
Question 5: What is the correct chronological order in the disaster management cycle?
- A. Impact → Response → Rehabilitation → Mitigation
- B. Response → Rehabilitation → Mitigation → Impact
- C. Rehabilitation → Mitigation → Response → Impact
- D. Mitigation → Impact → Response → Rehabilitation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mitigation → Impact → Response → Rehabilitation*** - Among the given options, this represents the most **logical chronological sequence** in disaster management - **Mitigation** (risk reduction) occurs before a disaster as preventive measures - **Impact** represents the disaster event occurrence (though technically not a "management phase" but the event itself) - **Response** involves immediate emergency actions during and after the disaster - **Rehabilitation** encompasses recovery and long-term rebuilding efforts - **Note:** The standard disaster management cycle typically includes Mitigation → Preparedness → Response → Recovery, but this option best represents the temporal flow among the choices provided *Impact → Response → Rehabilitation → Mitigation* - Incorrectly places **Impact** first, ignoring that **mitigation** activities occur before disasters as preventive measures - Places **Mitigation** at the end rather than as an ongoing proactive process *Response → Rehabilitation → Mitigation → Impact* - Illogical sequence starting with **Response** before any disaster has occurred - Places **Impact** at the end, which contradicts the temporal nature of disaster occurrence - Fails to recognize mitigation as a preventive stage *Rehabilitation → Mitigation → Response → Impact* - Completely inverted sequence starting with **Rehabilitation** before a disaster has occurred - Does not follow the natural chronological progression of disaster events and management activities - Positions response and impact in an illogical order
Question 6: Patients requiring immediate life-threatening care are categorized under which of the following triage?
- A. Black
- B. Yellow
- C. Red (Correct Answer)
- D. Green
Explanation: ***Red*** - The **red tag** is assigned to patients with immediate, life-threatening injuries or illnesses who have a high probability of survival with prompt medical intervention. - This category signifies that the patient needs **critical care** and immediate transport to a medical facility to stabilize their condition. *Black* - The **black tag** is reserved for patients who are deceased or whose injuries are so severe that survival is unlikely, even with extensive medical care. - This category indicates that resources should be allocated to those with a higher chance of survival. *Yellow* - The **yellow tag** is for patients with significant injuries that require medical attention but are not immediately life-threatening. - These patients can usually wait for a few hours before receiving definitive treatment. *Green* - The **green tag** is for patients with minor injuries or illnesses that are not life-threatening and who can often care for themselves or wait for medical attention for several hours. - They are considered the "walking wounded" and usually require minimal medical intervention.
Question 7: In splenic injury, conservative management is done in which of the following?
- A. Extreme pallor and hypotension
- B. Young patient (Correct Answer)
- C. Shattered spleen
- D. Hemodynamically unstable
Explanation: ***Young patient*** - **Conservative management** of splenic injury is often favored in **younger patients** due to their greater capacity for healing and the desire to preserve splenic function. - The risk of **overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI)** is higher in children, making splenic preservation a priority. *Extreme pallor and hypotension* - **Extreme pallor** and **hypotension** are signs of significant blood loss and **hemodynamic instability**, which typically necessitate surgical intervention. - **Conservative management** is usually contraindicated in such cases as the patient is actively bleeding. *Shattered spleen* - A **shattered spleen** indicates a severe, often **grade IV or V** splenic injury, where the spleen is extensively fragmented. - This level of injury is associated with uncontrollable bleeding and almost always requires **splenectomy**. *Hemodynamically unstable* - **Hemodynamic instability**, characterized by persistent hypotension, tachycardia, or inadequate organ perfusion, is a **contraindication** to conservative management. - Patients who are **hemodynamically unstable** need immediate surgical exploration to control bleeding.
Question 8: In splenic injury conservative management is done in :
- A. Hemodynamically unstable
- B. Extreme pallor and hypotension
- C. Young pt. (Correct Answer)
- D. Shattered spleen
Explanation: ***Young pt.*** - **Conservative management** of splenic injury is often preferred in children and young adults due to their greater capacity for healing and the risks associated with splenectomy. - While not the sole criterion, **younger age** is a significant factor favoring a non-operative approach if the patient is hemodynamically stable. *Hemodynamically unstable* - **Hemodynamic instability** is a strong contraindication to conservative management and necessitates immediate surgical intervention to control bleeding. - This patient would require **resuscitation** followed by laparotomy to address the splenic injury. *Shattered spleen* - A **shattered spleen** implies extensive parenchymal damage and often active bleeding, making conservative management highly risky and usually unsuccessful. - Such severe injuries typically require **splenectomy** or a complex splenic repair. *Extreme pallor and hypotension* - **Extreme pallor** and **hypotension** are clinical signs of significant blood loss and **hypovolemic shock**, indicating hemodynamic instability. - This patient requires urgent **resuscitation** and surgical intervention, not conservative management.
Question 9: Traumatic haemothorax is best managed by:
- A. Use of streptokinase
- B. Intercostal tube drainage (Correct Answer)
- C. Open drainage
- D. Aspiration of blood from pleural cavity
Explanation: ***Intercostal tube drainage*** - **Intercostal tube drainage** is the most effective initial management for traumatic haemothorax as it allows continuous evacuation of blood and re-expansion of the lung. - It helps in quantifying blood loss, preventing clot formation, and improving respiratory mechanics by reducing pleural space compression. *Use of streptokinase* - **Streptokinase** is a fibrinolytic agent used to break down clots, but its primary role is in established, organized haemothoraces (fibrothorax) and is not the acute management for traumatic haemothorax. - Administering streptokinase in acute bleeding can worsen haemorrhage and is contraindicated in the immediate post-traumatic period. *Open drainage* - **Open drainage**, typically via thoracotomy, is reserved for massive haemothorax (e.g., >1500 mL initially or >200 mL/hr for 2-4 hours) or ongoing severe bleeding that cannot be controlled by tube thoracostomy. - It is a more invasive procedure with higher risks and is not the first-line management for all traumatic haemothoraces. *Aspiration of blood from pleural cavity* - **Aspiration of blood from the pleural cavity** (thoracentesis) can be diagnostic but is often insufficient for adequately draining a traumatic haemothorax, especially if there is ongoing bleeding or significant clot formation. - It is often reserved for small, uncomplicated haemothoraces or for diagnostic purposes, not as the definitive management in trauma.
Question 10: In the damage control resuscitation protocol, which location is primarily focused on correcting physiological derangements after initial hemorrhage control?
- A. In OT
- B. Prehospital resuscitation
- C. In emergency
- D. In ICU (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***In ICU*** - The **Intensive Care Unit (ICU)** is the primary location for correcting physiological derangements in the damage control resuscitation protocol after initial hemorrhage control. - This phase focuses on addressing the **"deadly triad"** of **acidosis**, **hypothermia**, and **coagulopathy** to stabilize the patient before definitive surgical repair. - The ICU provides the controlled environment and resources needed for prolonged resuscitation and physiological optimization. *In OT* - The **Operating Theater (OT)** is where initial hemorrhage control and damage control surgery are performed. - While some resuscitation occurs here, the main focus is on stopping bleeding and controlling contamination, not prolonged physiological correction. - The goal is rapid surgical intervention followed by transfer to ICU. *Prehospital resuscitation* - **Prehospital resuscitation** involves immediate life-saving interventions and rapid transport. - It prioritizes hemorrhage control, airway management, and preventing hypothermia, but lacks the resources for comprehensive physiological correction. - The focus is on rapid transport to definitive care. *In emergency* - The **Emergency Department (ED)** is crucial for initial assessment, rapid transfusion, and preparing the patient for surgery. - However, the ED phase is typically focused on rapid stabilization and transfer for definitive care rather than protracted physiological correction. - It serves as a bridge between prehospital care and the operating room.
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