Tissue Expansion — MCQs
Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:
When osseous defects amenable to reconstruction are present, technique of choice is?
A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?
What is the most common complication after total hip replacement?
Following a knife injury to the face causing facial nerve damage, secretion from which of the following glands would be LEAST likely to be impaired?
Surgery to widen the cartilaginous part of EAC
Most common complication of mastectomy is:
Which muscle flap is commonly used for autologous breast reconstruction after mastectomy?
Amputated digits are preserved in:
An autograft of a burn victim is best described by which one of the following?
Tissue Expansion Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:
- A. Allowing secondary granulation
- B. Full thickness grafting (Correct Answer)
- C. Split skin graft
- D. Dressing with placenta
Explanation: ***Full thickness grafting*** - **Full-thickness skin grafts** include the epidermis and full dermis, which contains **fewer myofibroblasts** than split-thickness grafts, thus minimizing contraction. - The greater amount of dermal tissue acts as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent excessive wound contraction, providing a more stable and aesthetically pleasing result. *Allowing secondary granulation* - Healing by **secondary intention** involves substantial granulation tissue formation, which is rich in **myofibroblasts** and leads to significant wound contraction. - This method of healing is often used for infected or contaminated wounds but results in the **most contraction**. *Split skin graft* - **Split-thickness skin grafts** contain only a portion of the dermis, making them prone to **moderate to significant wound contraction**. - While better than secondary intention, the thin dermal layer provides less resistance to the contractile forces of the **myofibroblasts**. *Dressing with placenta* - **Placental tissue dressings** can promote wound healing by providing growth factors and a scaffold for regeneration. - However, they do not inherently prevent or minimize **wound contraction** in the same way that a full-thickness graft mechanically does, as they do not replace the entire dermal layer.
Question 2: When osseous defects amenable to reconstruction are present, technique of choice is?
- A. Sulcular flap
- B. Modified Widman flap
- C. Apically displaced flap
- D. Papilla preservation flap (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Papilla preservation flap*** - This technique is specifically designed to **preserve the interdental papilla**, which is critical for covering and protecting regenerative materials placed in osseous defects. - By maintaining the integrity of the papilla, it facilitates primary wound closure over the defect, enhancing the predictability of **guided tissue regeneration (GTR)** and bone grafting procedures. *Sulcular flap* - A sulcular flap involves an incision within the sulcus, which typically provides limited access and does not allow for adequate coverage of large **osseous defects**. - It does not offer the tissue volume needed for the stable primary closure essential for regenerative procedures. *Modified Widman flap* - While providing excellent access for debridement in periodontal pockets, the modified Widman flap's incisions often **transect the interdental papilla**, making primary closure over a regenerative defect less ideal. - Its primary goal is root debridement and pocket reduction, not necessarily **papilla preservation** for regenerative purposes. *Apically displaced flap* - An apically displaced flap is designed to **increase the zone of attached gingiva** or reduce pocket depths, by positioning the flap apically to its original position. - This flap design is not suitable for covering osseous defects amenable to reconstruction because it often exposes more root surface and does not provide the necessary coronal coverage for regenerative materials.
Question 3: A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?
- A. 48%
- B. 12%
- C. 24%
- D. 3% (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***3%*** - **Purely cystic thyroid nodules** (as described in this case with "isolated cystic swelling") have a **very low risk of malignancy**, typically **2-3%** or less. - According to **ATA guidelines** and **TIRADS classification**, purely cystic nodules are considered **low suspicion** lesions. - The cystic nature suggests a **benign process** such as a degenerated adenoma, colloid cyst, or simple cyst. - **Fine needle aspiration (FNA)** may still be considered if the nodule is >2 cm or has any suspicious solid components, but is often not required for purely cystic lesions. *48%* - This percentage is **significantly higher** than the actual malignancy risk for a purely cystic thyroid swelling. - Such a **high risk** would typically be associated with **solid nodules** exhibiting highly suspicious ultrasound features such as: - Microcalcifications - Irregular or spiculated margins - Taller-than-wide shape - Marked hypoechogenicity - Extrathyroidal extension *24%* - This percentage represents a **moderate to high risk** of malignancy, which is **not characteristic** of an isolated purely cystic thyroid swelling. - A risk in this range might be seen with: - **Mixed solid-cystic nodules** with predominantly solid components - Solid nodules with **intermediate suspicious features** on ultrasound *12%* - While lower than 24% or 48%, 12% is still **considerably higher** than the generally accepted malignancy risk for purely cystic thyroid nodules. - This risk level could be plausible for: - **Predominantly cystic nodules** with some eccentric solid components - Solid nodules with **mildly suspicious** features on ultrasound
Question 4: What is the most common complication after total hip replacement?
- A. Dislocation
- B. DVT (Correct Answer)
- C. Infection
- D. Aseptic Loosening
Explanation: ***DVT*** - Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the **most common overall complication** following total hip replacement, with reported incidences as high as 40-60% without prophylaxis. - The risk of DVT is significant due to **venous stasis during surgery**, immobilization, and the inflammatory response to tissue injury. *Dislocation* - While a serious complication, **dislocation** of the prosthetic hip joint is less common than DVT, occurring in about 1-5% of primary total hip replacements. - It typically results from **improper joint positioning** or patient activities that push the hip beyond its normal range of motion. *Infection* - **Infection** is a severe but relatively rare complication, with rates for periprosthetic joint infection in total hip replacement typically ranging from 0.5% to 2%. - It can lead to significant morbidity and usually requires **further surgical intervention** for eradication. *Aseptic Loosening* - **Aseptic loosening** is a long-term complication, occurring years after the surgery, rather than an immediate post-operative complication. - This complication involves the **failure of the implant-bone interface** without evidence of infection, often due to particle disease or mechanical stress.
Question 5: Following a knife injury to the face causing facial nerve damage, secretion from which of the following glands would be LEAST likely to be impaired?
- A. Parotid gland (Correct Answer)
- B. Sublingual gland
- C. Lacrimal gland
- D. Submandibular gland
Explanation: ***Parotid gland*** - The **parotid gland** receives parasympathetic innervation for secretion via the **glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)**, specifically through the **lesser petrosal nerve** → **otic ganglion** → **auriculotemporal nerve**. - The **facial nerve (CN VII)** passes through the parotid gland but does not provide secretomotor innervation, so facial nerve damage would **not impair parotid secretion**. *Sublingual gland* - The **sublingual gland** receives parasympathetic innervation from the **facial nerve (CN VII)** via the **chorda tympani** → **submandibular ganglion**. - Damage to the facial nerve would impair secretion from the sublingual gland. *Lacrimal gland* - The **lacrimal gland** receives parasympathetic innervation from the **facial nerve (CN VII)** via the **greater petrosal nerve** → **pterygopalatine ganglion**. - Damage to the facial nerve would impair tear production from the lacrimal gland, leading to **dry eye** (keratoconjunctivitis sicca). *Submandibular gland* - The **submandibular gland** receives parasympathetic innervation from the **facial nerve (CN VII)** via the **chorda tympani** → **submandibular ganglion**. - Damage to the facial nerve would impair secretion from the submandibular gland.
Question 6: Surgery to widen the cartilaginous part of EAC
- A. Tympanoplasty
- B. Otoplasty
- C. Myringoplasty
- D. Meatoplasty (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Meatoplasty*** - A **meatoplasty** involves enlarging the external auditory meatus, which is the cartilaginous opening of the external auditory canal (EAC). - This procedure is often performed to improve **ventilation** and **drainage**, or to facilitate the fitting of hearing aids. *Tympanoplasty* - A **tympanoplasty** is a surgical procedure to repair the **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** and/or the **ossicular chain**. - Its primary goal is to improve hearing and prevent recurrent ear infections, not to widen the EAC. *Otoplasty* - **Otoplasty** is a cosmetic surgical procedure to reshape the **external ear (pinna)**, often to correct prominent ears. - It does not involve modifying the external auditory canal. *Myringoplasty* - **Myringoplasty** is a specific type of tympanoplasty focused solely on repairing a **perforated tympanic membrane**. - It does not involve widening the cartilaginous part of the EAC.
Question 7: Most common complication of mastectomy is:
- A. Seroma (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Infection
- D. Lymphedema
Explanation: ***Seroma*** - **Seroma** formation is the most common complication after mastectomy, involving the accumulation of serous fluid in the surgical dead space. - This complication can lead to discomfort, delayed wound healing, and an increased risk of infection. *Hemorrhage* - While a serious complication, **hemorrhage** is less common than seroma formation. - Significant hemorrhage usually occurs intraoperatively or in the immediate postoperative period and is typically managed promptly. *Lymphedema* - **Lymphedema** is a chronic condition characterized by swelling of the arm due to impaired lymphatic drainage, often developing months to years after surgery. - Although highly significant and debilitating, its incidence is lower than acute complications like seroma. *Infection* - Surgical site **infection** is a potential complication but is generally less frequent than seroma due to careful aseptic techniques and prophylactic antibiotics. - Infections can range from superficial wound infections to more serious cellulitis.
Question 8: Which muscle flap is commonly used for autologous breast reconstruction after mastectomy?
- A. Deltopectoral
- B. Serratus anterior
- C. Trapezius
- D. Latissimus dorsi (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Latissimus dorsi*** - The **latissimus dorsi** muscle is commonly used in **autologous breast reconstruction** due to its rich blood supply and ample tissue volume which can be transferred as a **pedicled flap** to the chest. - This flap includes muscle, skin, and subcutaneous fat, providing a good aesthetic outcome for **breast mound reconstruction** after mastectomy. *Deltopectoral* - The **deltopectoral flap** is primarily used for **head and neck reconstruction**, specifically for oral cavity and pharyngeal defects. - It involves muscle and skin from the **chest and shoulder region**, but its size and location make it less suitable for comprehensive breast reconstruction. *Serratus anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle is occasionally used as a **free flap** for small soft tissue defects, but it is not typically the first choice for large-volume breast reconstruction. - Its primary role is in **shoulder movement** and it does not provide sufficient tissue bulk for a complete breast mound. *Trapezius* - The **trapezius flap** is more commonly employed in **head and neck reconstruction** or for covering defects in the posterior shoulder region. - While it offers a good blood supply, its bulk and orientation are not ideal for **breast reconstruction**, which requires a more anterior and hemispheric shape.
Question 9: Amputated digits are preserved in:
- A. Plastic bag in ice (Correct Answer)
- B. Deep freezer
- C. Cold ringer lactate
- D. Cold saline
Explanation: ***Plastic bag in ice*** - The amputated digit should be placed in a **sterile plastic bag** and then immersed in a container with **ice water**. This method provides adequate cooling to preserve tissue viability without direct contact with ice, which can cause **frostbite**. - This approach slows down metabolic processes and reduces oxygen demand, extending the time window for successful **replantation**. *Deep freezer* - Placing an amputated digit directly into a deep freezer causes **ice crystal formation** within the cells, leading to severe **tissue damage** and making replantation impossible. - Extreme cold results in **cellular dehydration** and destruction, rendering the tissue non-viable for reattachment. *Cold ringer lactate* - While Ringer's lactate is an appropriate solution for **tissue irrigation** or to keep a digit moist in an emergency, it should not be used as the primary medium for prolonged preservation without adequate cooling. - For optimal preservation, Ringer's lactate could be used *inside* the plastic bag to bathe the digit, but the bag still needs to be placed on ice to achieve the necessary **hypothermic conditions**. *Cold saline* - Similar to Ringer's lactate, cold saline can be used to **cleanse** the amputated part or keep it moist temporarily. However, it is not ideal as the sole preservation method. - Direct immersion in saline with ice is better than plain saline at room temperature but still carries the risk of **tissue maceration** if not properly managed within a sealed bag on ice. The primary goal is cooling, not just hydration.
Question 10: An autograft of a burn victim is best described by which one of the following?
- A. Transplant from one person to another person
- B. Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
- C. Transplant from one species to another species
- D. Transplant from one region of a person to another region (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transplant from one region of a person to another region*** - An **autograft** involves transferring tissue from one site to another within the **same individual**. - This type of graft is immunologically optimal as it avoids **immune rejection**. *Transplant from one person to another person* - This describes an **allograft**, where tissue is transplanted between genetically distinct individuals of the **same species**. - **Allografts** carry a risk of rejection and require immunosuppression. *Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person* - This is an **isograft** (or syngraft), occurring between **monozygotic twins** or highly inbred animals. - While genetically identical, it is a specific type of **allograft** and not an autograft. *Transplant from one species to another species* - This describes a **xenograft**, where tissue is transferred between individuals of **different species**. - **Xenografts** face significant immune rejection and ethical considerations, making them less common in standard practice.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free