Breast Reconstruction — MCQs
What is the condition commonly known as jumper's knee?
Best procedure for an injury to the leg with exposed bone and skin loss:
Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?
The best material for below-inguinal arterial graft is:
Closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury is called.
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Best investigation to detect rupture of silicone breast implants is-
A woman noticed a mass in her left breast with bloody discharge. Histopathology revealed duct ectasia. What is the treatment?
Following radical surgery for the carcinoma of breast, reconstruction of the breast can be performed by using the following procedures except
Which flap is commonly used in breast reconstruction?
Breast Reconstruction Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the condition commonly known as jumper's knee?
- A. Inflammation of the patellar tendon at its insertion on the patella.
- B. Tendinopathy of the quadriceps tendon.
- C. Injury to the hamstring tendon.
- D. Patellar tendonitis due to overuse of the patellar tendon. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Patellar tendonitis due to overuse of the patellar tendon.*** - **Jumper's knee** is the common term for **patellar tendonitis**, which specifically refers to inflammation of the patellar tendon. - This condition is frequently caused by **overuse**, especially in activities involving repetitive jumping and landing. *Inflammation of the patellar tendon at its insertion on the patella.* - While jumper's knee does involve inflammation of the patellar tendon, it is more commonly at its insertion on the **tibial tubercle** or specifically its origin at the **inferior pole of the patella**, not necessarily at the patella itself. - This option is less precise as it describes only one aspect of the condition without mentioning the critical role of overuse. *Tendinopathy of the quadriceps tendon.* - **Tendinopathy of the quadriceps tendon** is a distinct condition affecting the tendon above the patella, known as **quadriceps tendinopathy**. - It presents with pain proximal to the patella, differentiating it from jumper's knee, which involves the tendon distal to the patella. *Injury to the hamstring tendon.* - An **injury to the hamstring tendon** would cause pain and symptoms on the posterior aspect of the knee or thigh. - This is completely unrelated to jumper's knee, which is characterized by anterior knee pain.
Question 2: Best procedure for an injury to the leg with exposed bone and skin loss:
- A. Full thickness grafting
- B. Skin flap
- C. Split skin grafting
- D. Pedicle flap (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pedicle flap*** - A pedicle flap provides **vascularized tissue** that can cover exposed bone, which requires a robust blood supply for healing and protection. - This method ensures good **tissue viability** and bulk, crucial for areas with high functional demands and potential for infection like the lower leg. *Full thickness grafting* - **Full-thickness skin grafts** are generally too thin to adequately cover exposed bone and do not provide sufficient vascularity or padding. - They rely entirely on the recipient bed for vascularization, which is poor over exposed bone, leading to a high risk of **graft failure**. *Skin flap* - While a generic "skin flap" implies a vascularized tissue transfer, it is less specific than a pedicle flap, which ensures continuous blood supply from the donor site until full integration. - The term "skin flap" alone doesn't specify if it's a local, regional, or free flap, and **pedicle flaps** are often the most direct and reliable solution for lower leg bone exposure. *Split skin grafting* - **Split-thickness skin grafts** are very thin and contain only a portion of the dermis, making them unsuitable for covering exposed bone or tendons. - They would likely **fail to take** due to lack of a vascular bed and offer no padding or protection against further injury.
Question 3: Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?
- A. Multicentric disease
- B. Previous radiation to breast
- C. Large tumor size
- D. Small tumor size (<3cm) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Small tumor size (<3cm)*** ✓ - A small tumor size is **NOT a contraindication** for breast-conserving surgery; it is actually a **favorable condition** and an indication for breast conservation. - Small tumors allow for complete tumor removal with good cosmetic outcomes and adequate margins. - This is the **correct answer** as it is the only option that is NOT a relative contraindication. *Multicentric disease* - **Multicentric disease** refers to the presence of multiple tumor foci in **different quadrants** of the breast, making complete surgical removal challenging with breast-conserving surgery. - This is a **relative contraindication** as it increases the risk of **positive margins** and local recurrence, making mastectomy often a more appropriate option. *Previous radiation to breast* - Prior radiation therapy to the breast is a **contraindication** (often considered absolute) for subsequent breast radiation, which is an essential component of breast-conserving therapy. - Re-irradiation carries a high risk of severe **skin and tissue toxicity**, making further breast conservation unfeasible. *Large tumor size* - A large tumor size is a **relative contraindication** as it can make it difficult to achieve **clear surgical margins** while maintaining an acceptable cosmetic result. - However, **neoadjuvant chemotherapy** may downstage large tumors to make them suitable for breast-conserving surgery. - Without tumor reduction, it often requires **mastectomy**.
Question 4: The best material for below-inguinal arterial graft is:
- A. Saphenous vein graft (upside-down) (Correct Answer)
- B. Cryopreserved vein
- C. Dacron
- D. PTFE
Explanation: ***Saphenous vein graft (upside-down)*** - The **autologous saphenous vein** is the material of choice for below-inguinal arterial bypasses due to its superior patency rates compared to synthetic grafts. - It is often harvested and implanted **'upside-down' (reversed)** to ensure the valves do not obstruct blood flow, or can be used *in situ* after rendering the valves incompetent. - Five-year patency rates for autologous vein grafts exceed 70-80% for femoropopliteal bypasses. *Cryopreserved vein* - **Cryopreserved saphenous vein allografts** are an alternative when autologous vein is unavailable or inadequate. - However, they have **significantly lower patency rates** compared to autologous vein grafts due to immunological responses and structural degradation. - They are generally reserved for salvage situations or as a bridge in limb-threatening ischemia. *Dacron* - **Dacron (polyethylene terephthalate)** grafts are primarily used for large-diameter arterial replacements, such as in **aortic bypasses**, and are less suitable for smaller, high-resistance vessels below the inguinal ligament. - They tend to have higher rates of **thrombosis** and infection when used in infra-inguinal positions compared to vein grafts. *PTFE* - **Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)** grafts have lower patency rates than autologous vein grafts, particularly in smaller diameter vessels and below-knee positions, due to issues like **intimal hyperplasia** at the anastomoses. - While suitable when autologous vein is unavailable, it is generally considered inferior for below-inguinal peripheral arterial disease, with 3-year patency rates around 50-60% for above-knee and 30-40% for below-knee positions.
Question 5: Closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury is called.
- A. Primary closure (Correct Answer)
- B. Delayed primary closure
- C. Secondary closure
- D. Tertiary closure
Explanation: ***Primary closure*** - **Primary closure** is the immediate closure of a wound, typically within **6 hours** of injury, for **clean wounds** at low risk of infection. - This method promotes direct apposition of wound edges, leading to **faster healing** and **minimal scarring**. *Delayed primary closure* - This involves leaving a wound open for **4-6 days** to monitor for infection or edema, then closing it if conditions are favorable. - It is often used for **contaminated wounds** or those with a higher risk of infection, where immediate closure is not safe. - Also known as **tertiary closure**. *Secondary closure* - **Secondary closure**, or healing by secondary intention, occurs when a wound is left open and allowed to **heal naturally by granulation, contraction, and epithelialization**. - This method is used for **heavily contaminated** or **infected wounds** and results in a larger scar and a longer healing time. *Tertiary closure* - **Tertiary closure** is another term for **delayed primary closure**. - It involves leaving a wound open initially, then closing it after several days (typically 4-6 days) once the risk of infection has decreased. - This option is incorrect because the question asks about closure **within 6 hours**, not delayed closure.
Question 6: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 7: Best investigation to detect rupture of silicone breast implants is-
- A. Mammography
- B. X-ray
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. USG
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is considered the **gold standard** for detecting silicone breast implant ruptures due to its superior soft tissue contrast and ability to differentiate silicone from other tissues. - It can accurately identify both **intracapsular** (linguine sign) and **extracapsular** ruptures, as well as associated silicone granulomas. *Mammography* - While useful for breast cancer screening, **mammography** has limited sensitivity for detecting silicone implant ruptures, especially subtle ones. - It can show indirect signs like implant contour abnormalities or increased implant density but is often inconclusive for rupture diagnosis. *X-ray* - **X-rays** provide very little information regarding the integrity of silicone breast implants because silicone is radiolucent and does not show up clearly on standard radiographs. - Its utility is primarily for detecting calcifications or foreign bodies, not implant rupture. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** can be a useful initial screening tool for detecting implant ruptures, showing signs like the **"stepladder sign"** for intracapsular rupture or anechoic collections (silicone outside the capsule). - However, its accuracy is highly operator-dependent, and it may miss subtle ruptures or be limited by poor visualization due to scar tissue, making MRI a more definitive choice.
Question 8: A woman noticed a mass in her left breast with bloody discharge. Histopathology revealed duct ectasia. What is the treatment?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Hadfield operation (Correct Answer)
- C. Simple mastectomy
- D. Microdochectomy
Explanation: ***Hadfield operation*** - The Hadfield operation, also known as **total duct excision** or **microdochectomy**, is indicated for **benign duct ectasia** with pathological nipple discharge, especially if persistent, bloody, or associated with a discrete mass. - This procedure removes the affected duct system, preventing recurrence of the discharge and addressing the mass. *Simple mastectomy* - This involves the removal of the entire breast and is typically reserved for **malignant conditions** (breast cancer). - It is an **overly aggressive** treatment for a benign condition like duct ectasia. *Microdochectomy* - This term usually refers to the **excision of a single duct** and is a type of duct excision, often used interchangeably with total duct excision. - While it addresses the issue, the Hadfield operation generally implies a more comprehensive removal of the major duct system via a circumareolar incision. *Lobectomy* - Lobectomy is typically associated with **lung surgery** (removal of a lung lobe) and is not a breast surgical procedure. - It describes the removal of an entire lobe of an organ, which is not applicable to breast duct disease in this context.
Question 9: Following radical surgery for the carcinoma of breast, reconstruction of the breast can be performed by using the following procedures except
- A. Silicone implants
- B. Transversus abdominis muscle flap (TRAM flap)
- C. Latissimus dorsi flap (LD flap)
- D. Deltopectoral flap (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Deltopectoral flap*** - The **deltopectoral flap**, also known as the Bakamjian flap, is primarily used for **head and neck reconstruction**, particularly for defects in the pharynx, esophagus, or oral cavity. - It involves tissue from the shoulder and chest wall, but its design and vascular supply make it unsuitable for **breast reconstruction** after radical mastectomy, which requires significantly more volume and different tissue characteristics. *Silicone implants* - **Silicone implants** are a common method for breast reconstruction, offering a less invasive option than flap procedures. - They are placed either beneath the pectoral muscle or subcutaneously to restore breast volume and shape. *Transversus abdominis muscle flap (TRAM flap)* - The **TRAM flap** is a widely used and versatile autologous tissue reconstruction method, utilizing tissue from the lower abdomen to create a new breast mound. - It can be either pedicled (retaining its original blood supply) or free (requiring microvascular anastomosis), providing a natural-feeling and long-lasting reconstruction. *Latissimus dorsi flap (LD flap)* - The **latissimus dorsi (LD) flap** involves transferring muscle, fat, and skin from the back to the chest to reconstruct the breast. - It is particularly useful for smaller breasts or when combined with an implant, and it can provide good aesthetic results with reliable blood supply.
Question 10: Which flap is commonly used in breast reconstruction?
- A. DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric perforator vessels (Correct Answer)
- B. Gluteal flap based on superior gluteal artery
- C. Latissimus dorsi flap based on thoracodorsal artery
- D. TRAM based on transverse rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation: ***DIEP based on deep inferior epigastric perforator vessels*** - The **DIEP flap** is currently the **most preferred autologous flap** for breast reconstruction and is increasingly commonly used in modern practice. - It uses tissue from the lower abdomen, providing excellent volume and a natural-feeling breast mound, while being nourished by **deep inferior epigastric perforator vessels**. - Key advantage: **Muscle-sparing technique** that preserves the rectus abdominis muscle, minimizing abdominal wall morbidity compared to older techniques like TRAM. - Considered the **gold standard** for abdominal-based breast reconstruction. *Gluteal flap based on superior gluteal artery* - While gluteal flaps (like the **SGAP** based on the **superior gluteal artery**) are used for breast reconstruction, they are typically considered a secondary option when abdominal tissue is unavailable or unsuitable. - Harvesting can be more challenging and may result in a less ideal breast shape compared to abdominal flaps. - Less commonly used compared to abdominal-based flaps. *Latissimus dorsi flap based on thoracodorsal artery* - The **latissimus dorsi flap** is a reliable and commonly used option, particularly for smaller breasts or partial reconstruction. - However, it often requires an implant to achieve sufficient volume (not purely autologous reconstruction). - It involves transferring muscle from the back, which can lead to back weakness or contour deformities. - While frequently used, it is not the preferred choice when autologous tissue from the abdomen is available. *TRAM based on transverse rectus abdominis muscle* - The **TRAM flap** was historically a very common choice for breast reconstruction but involves taking a significant portion of the rectus abdominis muscle. - This leads to higher rates of abdominal wall weakness, hernias, or bulges compared to muscle-sparing techniques. - It is currently **less commonly used** than the DIEP flap due to its higher donor site morbidity and has been largely superseded by the DIEP technique.
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