Palliative Surgical Procedures — MCQs
In splenic injury, conservative management is done in which of the following?
Which of the following is the platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent used as first-line treatment for ovarian carcinoma?
Which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSCORE?
Which nerve is most commonly injured during submandibular gland surgery?
In a patient with esophageal cancer and dysphagia affecting liquid intake, what is the most appropriate intervention to ensure nutritional support?
What is the treatment of choice for a patient presenting with carcinoma of the rectum and obstruction in an emergency setting?
What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors?
Ether was first used as an anesthetic by?
Which of the following statements about meningiomas is true?
What is the most appropriate surgical procedure for duodenal atresia?
Palliative Surgical Procedures Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In splenic injury, conservative management is done in which of the following?
- A. Extreme pallor and hypotension
- B. Young patient (Correct Answer)
- C. Shattered spleen
- D. Hemodynamically unstable
Explanation: ***Young patient*** - **Conservative management** of splenic injury is often favored in **younger patients** due to their greater capacity for healing and the desire to preserve splenic function. - The risk of **overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI)** is higher in children, making splenic preservation a priority. *Extreme pallor and hypotension* - **Extreme pallor** and **hypotension** are signs of significant blood loss and **hemodynamic instability**, which typically necessitate surgical intervention. - **Conservative management** is usually contraindicated in such cases as the patient is actively bleeding. *Shattered spleen* - A **shattered spleen** indicates a severe, often **grade IV or V** splenic injury, where the spleen is extensively fragmented. - This level of injury is associated with uncontrollable bleeding and almost always requires **splenectomy**. *Hemodynamically unstable* - **Hemodynamic instability**, characterized by persistent hypotension, tachycardia, or inadequate organ perfusion, is a **contraindication** to conservative management. - Patients who are **hemodynamically unstable** need immediate surgical exploration to control bleeding.
Question 2: Which of the following is the platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent used as first-line treatment for ovarian carcinoma?
- A. Cyclophosphamide
- B. Methotrexate
- C. Cisplatin (Correct Answer)
- D. Dacarbazine
Explanation: ***Cisplatin*** - **Cisplatin** is a platinum-based chemotherapy drug that forms **DNA cross-links**, inhibiting DNA synthesis and leading to the death of rapidly dividing cells, making it highly effective against **ovarian carcinoma**. - It is a cornerstone of chemotherapy regimens for ovarian cancer, often used in combination with other agents such as paclitaxel. *Methotrexate* - **Methotrexate** is an **antimetabolite** that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, thereby interfering with DNA synthesis. - While it is used in various cancers like leukemia, lymphoma, and some solid tumors (e.g., breast cancer, gestational trophoblastic disease), it is **not a primary recommended drug for ovarian carcinoma**. *Cyclophosphamide* - **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** that causes DNA damage, leading to cell death. - It is used in many cancers, including lymphoma, breast cancer, and some leukemias, but it is **not a first-line or primary agent for ovarian carcinoma** in contemporary treatment guidelines. *Dacarbazine* - **Dacarbazine** is an **alkylating agent** primarily used in the treatment of **malignant melanoma** and Hodgkin lymphoma. - It is **not indicated for the treatment of ovarian carcinoma**.
Question 3: Which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSCORE?
- A. Performance status
- B. Complication of surgery (Correct Answer)
- C. Priority of surgery
- D. ASA grading
Explanation: ***Complication of surgery*** - THORACOSCORE is a **risk prediction model** for thoracic surgery used to estimate the *probability of mortality and significant morbidity*, but it does not account for the complications of surgery itself as a component. - The score uses **pre-operative patient characteristics** and co-morbidities to predict outcomes, not post-operative events. *Performance status* - **Performance status**, such as the **ECOG scale**, is a crucial component of THORACOSCORE, reflecting the patient's general health and functional capacity prior to surgery. - A lower performance status (indicating poorer functional ability) increases the predicted risk in THORACOSCORE. *Priority of surgery* - The **priority of surgery** (e.g., elective, urgent, emergency) is an important factor in THORACOSCORE, as emergency procedures generally carry a higher risk. - This variable helps to capture the urgency and associated physiological stress on the patient at the time of presentation for surgery. *ASA grading* - The **American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classification system** is a component of THORACOSCORE, assessing the patient's overall health status and anesthetic risk. - A higher ASA grade (indicating more severe systemic disease) contributes to a higher predicted risk in the THORACOSCORE model.
Question 4: Which nerve is most commonly injured during submandibular gland surgery?
- A. Lingual nerve
- B. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Mylohyoid nerve
- D. Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation: ***Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve*** - The **marginal mandibular nerve** courses superficially over and along the superior border of the submandibular gland, making it the **most vulnerable** structure during surgery - It is at highest risk during elevation of the gland, ligation of the facial vessels, and dissection near the gland's superior border - Injury leads to **weakness or paralysis of the depressor muscles of the lower lip** (depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris), causing an asymmetric smile and difficulty with lip movements - This is the **most common nerve injury** in submandibular gland surgery due to its superficial anatomical position *Incorrect: Lingual nerve* - The **lingual nerve** passes medial to the submandibular duct and deep to the gland - While it can be injured during dissection of the submandibular duct or deeper aspects of the gland, it is **less commonly injured** than the marginal mandibular nerve - Damage results in **loss of taste and general sensation** to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the ipsilateral side *Incorrect: Mylohyoid nerve* - The **mylohyoid nerve** travels on the inferior surface of the mylohyoid muscle, generally beneath and protected by this muscle - It supplies the mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscles - Injury is **uncommon** during routine submandibular gland excision due to its protected anatomical position *Incorrect: Hypoglossal nerve* - The **hypoglossal nerve** lies deep and inferior to the submandibular gland - It supplies motor innervation to the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue - It is the **least commonly injured** nerve as it is well-protected by its deep position, unless dissection is carried excessively deep or inferiorly
Question 5: In a patient with esophageal cancer and dysphagia affecting liquid intake, what is the most appropriate intervention to ensure nutritional support?
- A. Total parenteral nutrition
- B. Nasogastric tube feeding
- C. Esophageal stent placement
- D. Placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube*** - The question tests the principle that **gastrostomy tube feeding offers long-term nutritional support** for patients with esophageal obstruction and **dysphagia**, ensuring adequate caloric intake directly into the stomach. - Gastrostomy tubes are preferred over nasogastric tubes for **long-term feeding** (>4-6 weeks) due to better patient comfort, reduced risk of aspiration, and ease of care. - **Clinical Note:** In severe esophageal obstruction, a true PEG (percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy) may not be technically feasible due to inability to pass the endoscope. In such cases, **radiologically inserted gastrostomy (RIG)** or **surgical gastrostomy** would be performed instead, but the principle of enteral feeding via gastrostomy remains the same. - The **functioning gastrointestinal tract** should always be utilized when possible (enteral feeding preferred over parenteral). *Total parenteral nutrition* - **TPN is reserved for patients with non-functional gastrointestinal tracts** or those who cannot tolerate enteral feeding, which is not applicable here as the stomach and intestines remain functional. - It carries **higher risks of infection, hepatic complications, metabolic derangements**, and is significantly more expensive compared to enteral feeding. - Following the principle: **"If the gut works, use it"** - enteral nutrition is always preferred when feasible. *Nasogastric tube feeding* - **Nasogastric tubes cannot be passed through an obstructing esophageal tumor** and are typically only suitable for short-term feeding (less than 4-6 weeks). - They are uncomfortable for patients and pose a **higher risk of aspiration pneumonia**. - Not appropriate for long-term nutritional support in malignancy. *Esophageal stent placement* - Esophageal stents are **palliative interventions primarily used to alleviate dysphagia** and restore oral intake in malignant obstruction. - While stents may allow some oral nutrition, they **do not guarantee adequate or reliable nutritional support**, especially as disease progresses. - Stents can lead to complications such as **tumor overgrowth, stent migration, fistula formation, or chest pain**, which may further compromise nutritional intake. - When the primary goal is **ensuring adequate nutritional support** rather than just relieving dysphagia, a feeding gastrostomy is more reliable.
Question 6: What is the treatment of choice for a patient presenting with carcinoma of the rectum and obstruction in an emergency setting?
- A. Total colectomy
- B. Hartmann's procedure (Correct Answer)
- C. Defunctioning colostomy
- D. Left hemi-colectomy
Explanation: ***Hartmann's procedure*** - In an emergency setting with **obstructing carcinoma of the rectum**, Hartmann's procedure is the **treatment of choice**. - This procedure involves **resection of the tumor** with formation of an **end colostomy** and closure of the distal rectal stump. - It achieves **dual objectives**: relieves the obstruction AND removes the primary tumor, allowing proper oncological staging and planning of adjuvant therapy. - While more extensive than simple diversion, it is the **standard emergency operation** for obstructing left-sided and rectal cancers in patients who can tolerate resection. - The colostomy can be reversed later after adjuvant treatment (if needed), though many remain permanent. *Defunctioning colostomy* - A proximal diverting colostomy only diverts the fecal stream without addressing the primary tumor. - This is a **temporizing measure**, not definitive treatment, and leaves the malignancy in situ. - It may be considered in **highly unstable patients** or for purely **palliative** intent when resection is not feasible. - Requires a second major operation for definitive tumor resection, increasing overall morbidity. *Total colectomy* - This involves removing the entire colon and is performed for conditions like **familial adenomatous polyposis** or **synchronous colon cancers**. - Not indicated for isolated rectal cancer with obstruction. - Would be excessively extensive and carry unnecessary morbidity in this setting. *Left hemi-colectomy* - This procedure removes the left colon (descending and sigmoid) but typically does not include the rectum. - Not appropriate for **rectal cancer**, as it would not address the primary pathology. - Used for tumors of the descending or sigmoid colon, not rectum.
Question 7: What is the treatment of choice in desmoid tumors?
- A. Irradiation
- B. Wide excision (Correct Answer)
- C. Local excision
- D. Local excision following radiation
Explanation: ***Wide excision*** - For **desmoid tumors**, **complete surgical resection with clear margins** is the primary treatment of choice due to their infiltrative nature and high recurrence rates. - This approach aims to minimize local recurrence and prevent tumor progression, which can impact adjacent structures. *Irradiation* - **Radiation therapy** is typically reserved as an **adjuvant** treatment after surgery or for unresectable tumors, not as a primary standalone treatment. - While it can help reduce recurrence rates, it carries risks of **secondary malignancies** and local tissue damage. *Local excision* - **Local excision** alone is insufficient for desmoid tumors due to their **infiltrative growth pattern** and high propensity for **local recurrence** if positive margins remain. - It often leads to incomplete removal, necessitating further intervention and increasing the risk of tumor progression. *Local excision following radiation* - Combining local excision with initial radiation is not the preferred sequence; **wide surgical excision** is typically performed first. - Radiation might be considered preoperatively in specific cases to **reduce tumor size** or postoperatively for **positive margins**, but starting with local excision after initial radiation is not the standard primary management.
Question 8: Ether was first used as an anesthetic by?
- A. Morton (Correct Answer)
- B. Wells
- C. Simpson
- D. Priestly
Explanation: ***Morton*** - **William T.G. Morton**, a dentist, publicly demonstrated the use of **ether as a surgical anesthetic** in 1846 during a tooth extraction at Massachusetts General Hospital. - This event marked a pivotal moment in medicine, revolutionizing surgical practices by providing effective pain relief. *Priestly* - **Joseph Priestley** was an 18th-century chemist who discovered several gases, including **oxygen**, but was not involved in the anesthetic use of ether. - His work was foundational to understanding the composition of air but did not extend to surgical applications of inhaled substances. *Wells* - **Horace Wells**, an American dentist, was an early pioneer in anesthesia who experimented with **nitrous oxide** as an anesthetic for tooth extractions. - While significant, his work predated and differed from Morton's successful public demonstration and widespread adoption of ether. *Simpson* - **James Young Simpson**, a Scottish obstetrician, is credited with pioneering the use of **chloroform** as an anesthetic, particularly in childbirth. - His contributions were later than Morton's use of ether and involved a different anesthetic agent.
Question 9: Which of the following statements about meningiomas is true?
- A. Approximately 5% of meningiomas are malignant.
- B. Arise from the dural layer
- C. Meningiomas are more common in women due to hormonal influences.
- D. 95% cure rate following total surgical resection of benign meningiomas (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***95% cure rate following treatment*** - Meningiomas generally have a **high cure rate of approximately 95%** following surgical resection, especially when they are completely excised [1]. - They are typically **benign tumors**, resulting in favorable outcomes with appropriate management [1]. *Arise from arachnoid layer* - Meningiomas actually arise from **meningothelial cells** of the **arachnoid layer**, but this statement does not fully explain their pathogenesis. - This mischaracterization does not provide an accurate understanding of the tumor's origin and biology. *50% are malignant* - Most meningiomas are benign; only a small percentage, about **1-5%**, are classified as malignant. - Thus, stating that **50% are malignant** significantly overestimates the incidence of aggressive forms. *More common in men* - Meningiomas are more prevalent in **women**, especially those aged between 30-70 years, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately **3:1**. - This option is incorrect as it misrepresents the demographic distribution of the disease. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1316-1317.
Question 10: What is the most appropriate surgical procedure for duodenal atresia?
- A. Ramstedt's operation
- B. Duodenojejunostomy
- C. Duodenoduodenostomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Gastroduodenostomy
Explanation: ***Duodenoduodenostomy*** - This procedure involves **reconnecting the two ends of the duodenum** after resecting the atretic (blocked) segment. - It is specifically designed to bypass the obstruction caused by **duodenal atresia**, restoring normal intestinal continuity. *Ramstedt's operation* - This procedure is a **pyloromyotomy** performed for **pyloric stenosis**, where the thickened muscle of the pylorus is incised, not for duodenal atresia. - It addresses a narrowing at the exit of the stomach, not an obstruction within the small intestine itself. *Duodenojejunostomy* - This involves connecting the **duodenum to the jejunum**, typically used when a large segment of the duodenum is affected or there is a need to bypass a pathological area. - While technically feasible, **duodenoduodenostomy is preferred for isolated duodenal atresia** due to its more anatomical reconstruction. *Gastroduodenostomy* - This procedure connects the **stomach to the duodenum**, primarily performed after a partial gastrectomy (e.g., Billroth I) or for gastric outlet obstruction. - It is **not indicated for duodenal atresia**, as it does not address the congenital blockage within the duodenum.
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