Laparoscopic Colorectal Surgery — MCQs

10 questions

Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

A patient with a non-obstructing carcinoma of the sigmoid colon is being prepared for elective resection. To minimize the risk of postoperative infectious complications, what should be included in your planning?

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

Local excision in rectal cancer is done in all, except:

What is the preferred palliative surgical procedure for rectal prolapse in elderly patients who are unfit for more invasive surgery?

Among the following conditions, laparoscopy carries the highest risk in patients with:

Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with a gunshot wound that occurred 4 hours before admission. At exploratory laparotomy, an injury is noted in the transverse colon with extensive tissue destruction. There is a large amount of fecal contamination. Management of this injury should include which of the following?

Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:

Q10

The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first performed by whom?

Laparoscopic Colorectal Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

A. Median sternotomy
B. Horizontal laparotomy
C. Vertical laparotomy
D. Lateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lateral thoracotomy*** - **Lateral thoracotomy** is associated with the **highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications** among common surgical incisions, with complication rates ranging from **15-70%** depending on the procedure. - This incision **directly violates the chest wall** with rib resection or spreading, causing severe postoperative pain that significantly impairs respiratory mechanics. - The procedure disrupts **intercostal muscles**, damages **intercostal nerves**, and violates the **pleura**, leading to immediate risks like **pneumothorax**, **hemothorax**, and **pleural effusion**. - Severe pain leads to **splinting**, **shallow breathing**, **impaired cough**, and **reduced lung expansion**, markedly increasing the risk of **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, and **respiratory failure**. - The **ipsilateral lung** is particularly affected with reduced functional residual capacity and impaired secretion clearance. *Vertical laparotomy* - **Upper abdominal vertical incisions** are indeed associated with high pulmonary complication rates (**30-50%**), second only to thoracotomy. - Pain leads to **diaphragmatic splinting** and impaired respiratory mechanics, increasing risk of **atelectasis** and **pneumonia**. - However, the chest wall itself remains intact, making complications generally less severe than with thoracotomy. *Median sternotomy* - While a major thoracic procedure, **median sternotomy** has relatively **lower pulmonary complication rates** compared to lateral thoracotomy. - The sternal split preserves **intercostal muscles** and **nerve integrity**, resulting in less severe pain and better preserved respiratory mechanics. - Postoperative pain management is generally more effective than with lateral thoracotomy. *Horizontal laparotomy* - **Transverse abdominal incisions** (e.g., Pfannenstiel, transverse supraumbilical) cause significantly less pain than vertical incisions. - These incisions follow **natural tissue planes**, cause less muscle disruption, and allow better respiratory mechanics. - Lower pain levels facilitate **effective coughing**, **deep breathing**, and **early mobilization**, reducing pulmonary complication risk.

Question 2: A patient with a non-obstructing carcinoma of the sigmoid colon is being prepared for elective resection. To minimize the risk of postoperative infectious complications, what should be included in your planning?

A. Postoperative administration for 5 to 7 days of parenteral antibiotics effective against aerobes and anaerobes
B. A single preoperative parenteral dose of antibiotic effective against aerobes and anaerobes may provide initial coverage. (Correct Answer)
C. Postoperative administration for 2 to 4 days of parenteral antibiotics effective against aerobes and anaerobes
D. Avoidance of oral antibiotics to prevent emergence of Clostridioides difficile

Explanation: ***Single preoperative parenteral dose of antibiotic effective against aerobes and anaerobes*** - For **elective colorectal surgery**, a single dose of a **broad-spectrum parenteral antibiotic** administered within 60 minutes prior to incision is the standard of care to reduce surgical site infections. - This approach ensures adequate drug levels in the tissues during the period of potential bacterial contamination and is a cornerstone of modern surgical prophylaxis. - Current guidelines (WHO, SCIP) recommend a single preoperative dose, which may be redosed intraoperatively if the procedure is prolonged beyond 3-4 hours. *Avoidance of oral antibiotics to prevent emergence of Clostridioides difficile* - This is **incorrect**. **Oral antibiotics** (such as neomycin and metronidazole) are routinely used preoperatively in conjunction with mechanical bowel preparation for colorectal surgery to reduce intraluminal bacterial load. - The concern for *Clostridioides difficile* infection is generally low with short-term, targeted prophylactic antibiotic regimens compared to broad-spectrum, prolonged use. - The combination of oral and parenteral antibiotics has been shown to further reduce surgical site infections. *Postoperative administration for 5 to 7 days of parenteral antibiotics* - **Prolonged postoperative antibiotic administration** beyond 24 hours in uncomplicated cases is not recommended as it increases the risk of **antibiotic resistance**, *C. difficile* infection, and adverse drug reactions without additional benefit. - The goal of prophylactic antibiotics is to cover the period of contamination during surgery, not to treat presumed ongoing infection postoperatively. *Postoperative administration for 2 to 4 days of parenteral antibiotics* - While administration for up to 24 hours post-operatively may be considered in some high-risk cases, routine **prolonged postoperative antibiotics** (2-4 days) are unnecessary for most elective colorectal resections. - Evidence suggests that continuing antibiotics beyond the immediate perioperative period does not further reduce the incidence of **surgical site infections** in clean-contaminated surgeries.

Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A. Patients with severe liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension
B. Patients with obesity (Correct Answer)
C. Patients with a history of previous abdominal surgery
D. Patients with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Explanation: ***Patients with obesity*** - **Obesity** is not a contraindication for laparoscopic cholecystectomy and is actually often considered a **relative indication** for the laparoscopic approach over open surgery. - Laparoscopic cholecystectomy in obese patients offers significant advantages including reduced wound complications, decreased infection rates, better cosmesis, and faster recovery. - While technically more challenging due to thicker abdominal wall and increased intra-abdominal fat, experienced surgical teams routinely perform laparoscopic cholecystectomy in obese patients safely. *Patients with severe liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension* - **Severe liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension** are considered absolute or strong contraindications due to significantly increased risk of bleeding from dilated collateral vessels and impaired coagulation. - Pneumoperitoneum can further compromise hepatic blood flow and worsen portal hypertension. - These patients often require open surgery with careful hemostasis or medical management due to prohibitively high operative risk. *Patients with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)* - Patients with **severe COPD** with poor pulmonary reserve may have difficulty tolerating pneumoperitoneum due to increased intrathoracic pressure, reduced diaphragmatic excursion, and decreased ventilation-perfusion matching. - Hypercarbia from CO₂ absorption and increased airway pressures can lead to significant respiratory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve. - While mild-moderate COPD is not a contraindication with appropriate anesthetic management, severe COPD with inability to tolerate pneumoperitoneum constitutes a contraindication. *Patients with a history of previous abdominal surgery* - A history of **previous abdominal surgery** is considered at most a **relative contraindication**, not an absolute one, and is routinely managed in modern laparoscopic practice. - While intra-abdominal adhesions may increase technical difficulty and risk of bowel injury, techniques like open Hassan port insertion and careful adhesiolysis allow safe laparoscopic surgery in most cases. - Previous surgery requires careful preoperative assessment and may necessitate modified port placement or conversion to open if dense adhesions are encountered, but does not preclude attempting laparoscopy.

Question 4: Local excision in rectal cancer is done in all, except:

A. Involvement of <40% circumference
B. Lesion <4 cm
C. Within 6 cm of anal verge
D. T2 cancer or any lymph node involvement (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***T2 cancer or any lymph node involvement*** - Local excision is typically reserved for **early-stage rectal cancers (T1 tumors)** where the risk of lymph node metastasis is very low and there is **no lymph node involvement**. - **T2 tumors** (invasion into muscularis propria) carry a significantly higher risk of lymph node metastasis (10-20%) and are generally **not suitable for local excision**, requiring radical resection instead. - **Any lymph node involvement** (even in T1 disease) is an **absolute contraindication** to local excision, as it indicates metastatic spread requiring comprehensive lymphadenectomy through radical resection. *Within 6 cm of anal verge* - This refers to the **location within the rectum** and accessibility for transanal approaches. - Rectal tumors within 6-8 cm of the anal verge are **suitable for local excision** techniques like transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM) or transanal minimally invasive surgery (TAMIS) if they meet other criteria (T1, N0, favorable histology). *Lesion <4 cm* - **Tumor size <3-4 cm** is one of the favorable criteria for local excision. - Smaller tumors are more amenable to complete excision with adequate margins and are associated with lower risk of lymph node metastasis. *Involvement of <40% circumference* - The **circumferential involvement** of the rectal wall is an important factor for technical feasibility. - Tumors involving **<30-40% of the circumference** are suitable for local excision, allowing adequate margin resection and primary closure without compromising rectal function or causing stenosis.

Question 5: What is the preferred palliative surgical procedure for rectal prolapse in elderly patients who are unfit for more invasive surgery?

A. Delorme's procedure
B. Wells' procedure
C. Thiersch's operation (Correct Answer)
D. Low anterior resection

Explanation: ***Thiersch's operation*** - **Thiersch's operation** is a perineal procedure involving the placement of a **circum-anal cerclage** (a non-absorbable suture) around the anal canal to prevent external prolapse. - It is preferred in elderly or frail patients due to its **minimal invasiveness**, low operative risk, and suitability for local or regional anesthesia as a palliative measure for symptoms. *Delorme's procedure* - **Delorme's procedure** is a perineal approach that involves the **mucosal stripping** of the prolapsed rectum, plication of the muscularis, and re-anastomosis. - While less invasive than abdominal approaches, it is more complex than Thiersch's and may still carry higher operative risks for very frail patients. *Wells' procedure* - **Wells' procedure** (rectopexy via an abdominal approach) involves **mobilization of the rectum** and its fixation to the sacrum, often with a mesh. - This is a more invasive abdominal procedure with a higher operative risk, making it unsuitable for elderly patients unfit for major surgery. *Low anterior resection* - **Low anterior resection** is a major abdominal procedure primarily used for rectal cancer or severe inflammatory bowel disease, involving the **surgical removal of a segment of the rectum**. - It is a highly invasive procedure with significant morbidity and mortality, making it inappropriate for the palliative management of rectal prolapse in frail elderly patients.

Question 6: Among the following conditions, laparoscopy carries the highest risk in patients with:

A. COPD (Correct Answer)
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Obesity

Explanation: ***COPD*** - **COPD** patients have severely compromised respiratory function, and the **pneumoperitoneum** from CO2 insufflation causes **diaphragmatic splinting** and reduced lung compliance, leading to dangerous **CO2 retention** and respiratory failure. - The increased **intra-abdominal pressure** significantly impairs ventilation in patients who already have limited respiratory reserve, making laparoscopy extremely high-risk. *Diabetes* - While diabetes increases risks of **poor wound healing** and **infection**, these complications are not specifically worse with laparoscopy compared to open surgery. - **Perioperative glucose management** can effectively control diabetes-related risks, and laparoscopy may actually offer benefits like smaller incisions. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension** requires careful **blood pressure monitoring** during surgery but doesn't pose risks unique to laparoscopic procedures. - Well-controlled hypertension with appropriate **antihypertensive medications** allows for safe laparoscopic surgery. *Obesity* - **Obesity** makes laparoscopy technically challenging due to **thick abdominal walls** and need for higher insufflation pressures. - However, laparoscopy is often **preferred over open surgery** in obese patients due to reduced wound complications and faster recovery.

Question 7: Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

A. Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination. (Correct Answer)
B. Control contamination
C. Prevent coagulopathy
D. Arrest hemorrhage

Explanation: ***Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.*** * The overarching goal of a **damage control laparotomy** is to rapidly address immediate life threats, primarily **hemorrhage** and **bowel contamination**, in severely injured, unstable patients. * This approach prioritizes patient survival by performing essential steps quickly, deferring definitive repairs until the patient is physiologically stable. *Control contamination* * While **controlling contamination** is a critical component of damage control laparotomy, it is not the sole primary aim. * Uncontrolled bleeding, even without contamination, can rapidly lead to death in a trauma patient. *Prevent coagulopathy* * Preventing **coagulopathy** is an important consideration during damage control, but it is a consequence of uncontrolled hemorrhage and hypothermia, rather than a primary surgical aim in the initial damage control phase. * The surgical steps in damage control directly address the sources of bleeding and contamination. *Arrest hemorrhage* * **Arresting hemorrhage** is indeed a primary aim, but it is often accompanied by the need to control contamination from injured hollow organs. * Many abdominal trauma cases involve both significant bleeding and potential contamination.

Question 8: A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with a gunshot wound that occurred 4 hours before admission. At exploratory laparotomy, an injury is noted in the transverse colon with extensive tissue destruction. There is a large amount of fecal contamination. Management of this injury should include which of the following?

A. Resection of the wound with primary anastomosis and proximal cecostomy
B. Debridement and closure of wound with a proximal colostomy
C. Resection of the injured colon with primary anastomosis and proximal colostomy
D. Resection with proximal colostomy and distal mucous fistula (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Resection with proximal colostomy and distal mucous fistula*** - Extensive **tissue destruction** and significant **fecal contamination** in a gunshot wound to the colon necessitate diversion to prevent peritonitis and sepsis. - A **proximal colostomy** diverts the fecal stream, and a **distal mucous fistula** allows drainage of the distal segment, preventing a closed-loop obstruction and reducing the risk of anastomotic leak if a primary repair were attempted under septic conditions. *Resection of the wound with primary anastomosis and proximal cecostomy* - **Primary anastomosis** in the setting of extensive tissue destruction and heavy fecal contamination carries a high risk of **anastomotic leak** and peritonitis. - A **cecostomy** is generally insufficient for complete diversion of the fecal stream when dealing with injuries to the transverse colon or beyond. *Debridement and closure of wound with a proximal colostomy* - **Debridement and primary closure** are inadequate for extensive tissue destruction caused by a gunshot wound, as devitalized tissue will likely lead to breakdown and leak. - While a **proximal colostomy** provides diversion, inadequate management of the injury itself is prone to failure and complications. *Resection of the injured colon with primary anastomosis and proximal colostomy* - Although **resection** addresses the damaged tissue, performing a **primary anastomosis** in the presence of extensive **fecal contamination** significantly increases the risk of **anastomotic leak**. - A **proximal colostomy** would provide diversion, but the retained anastomosis remains a high-risk factor in this contaminated field.

Question 9: Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:

A. N2
B. CO2 (Correct Answer)
C. N2O
D. O2

Explanation: ***CO2*** - **Carbon dioxide** is rapidly absorbed and expelled by the respiratory system, minimizing the risk of **gas embolism**. - It is **non-flammable**, which is crucial in a surgical environment where electrosurgical devices are often used. - CO2 is **highly soluble in blood**, allowing rapid clearance if venous absorption occurs. *N2* - **Nitrogen** is not ideal for pneumoperitoneum as its poor solubility in blood leads to a significant risk of **gas embolism**. - **Increased nitrogen pockets** can create complications that make it a poor choice. *O2* - **Oxygen** poses a significant **fire hazard** in the presence of electrosurgical instruments. - It **supports combustion**, making the surgical field dangerous when using electrocautery or laser devices. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide** supports **combustion**, making it unsafe for use with electrosurgical devices. - It can also diffuse into **bowel loops**, causing distension and obstructing visibility, which is undesirable during laparoscopy.

Question 10: The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first performed by whom?

A. Erich Muhe (Correct Answer)
B. Eddie Joe Reddick
C. Philippe Mouret
D. Kurt Semm

Explanation: ***Erich Muhe*** - **Erich Muhe**, a German surgeon, performed the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy on September 12, 1985. - He is widely credited with pioneering this minimally invasive surgical technique for gallbladder removal. - This groundbreaking procedure marked the beginning of the laparoscopic revolution in surgery. *Philippe Mouret* - **Philippe Mouret** performed laparoscopic cholecystectomy in France in 1987, independently developing the technique. - While significant in advancing the procedure in Europe, his work followed Muhe's initial breakthrough. *Eddie Joe Reddick* - **Eddie Joe Reddick** was an American surgeon who, along with Douglas Olsen, was instrumental in popularizing and standardizing laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the United States in the late 1980s. - While not the first to perform the procedure, he played a crucial role in its widespread adoption and refinement. - His contributions were significant but came after Muhe's pioneering work. *Kurt Semm* - **Kurt Semm** was a German gynecologist who significantly advanced laparoscopic surgery in the 1980s, particularly in gynecology. - He developed many laparoscopic instruments and techniques, including the automatic insufflator. - Although a pioneer in laparoscopy, he did not perform the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

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