Thyroiditis — MCQs
All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
A 35-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with a painless neck swelling that moves with swallowing. She also reports constipation, weight gain, hoarseness, oligomenorrhea, and mild paresthesias. Examination reveals bradycardia, cold extremities, non-pitting edema, and delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes. Thyroid function tests show high TSH and low unbound T4 levels. Laboratory workup also reveals positive thyroid peroxidase antibodies, consistent with autoimmune thyroiditis. Given this condition, which type of cancer is she at risk of developing?
A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?
A 30-year-old woman presents with thyroid swelling. On investigations, her TSH levels are found to be elevated. Postoperative reports showed lymphocytic infiltration and Hurthle cells. A most probable diagnosis is?
Which of the following factors is not included in the MACIS score used for the prognosis of papillary thyroid cancer?
Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid artery
Which of the following statements is true regarding retrosternal goiters?
A 27-year-old woman presents with 26 weeks of gestation with a thyroid lesion which is found to be papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Which is the best treatment for this patient?
Where is a bruit typically heard in the thyroid gland?
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding medullary cancer of the thyroid?
Thyroiditis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Giant cells on histology
- C. Painless (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypothyroidism
Explanation: ***Painless*** - Granulomatous thyroiditis is characterized by **painful** thyroid gland inflammation, which is a distinguishing feature. - Thus, describing it as **painless** contradicts the typical clinical presentation. *Hyperthyroidism* - Granulomatous thyroiditis may lead to **hyperthyroidism** initially due to the release of thyroid hormones from damaged follicles [1]. - However, this condition can also lead to transient thyroid function changes or even permanent hypothyroidism later on [1]. *Hypothyroidism* - While **hypothyroidism** can occur post-thyroiditis, it is not a feature of granulomatous thyroiditis at the outset like the **painless** descriptor. - This condition often starts with hyperthyroid symptoms and may evolve later, differing from primary hypothyroid disorders. *Giant cells on histology* - Histological examination typically reveals **multinucleated giant cells**, a hallmark of granulomatous inflammation, as seen in this thyroid condition. - This significant finding helps in differentiating it from other thyroid disorders. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1091-1092.
Question 2: A 35-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with a painless neck swelling that moves with swallowing. She also reports constipation, weight gain, hoarseness, oligomenorrhea, and mild paresthesias. Examination reveals bradycardia, cold extremities, non-pitting edema, and delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes. Thyroid function tests show high TSH and low unbound T4 levels. Laboratory workup also reveals positive thyroid peroxidase antibodies, consistent with autoimmune thyroiditis. Given this condition, which type of cancer is she at risk of developing?
- A. Papillary thyroid carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Follicular thyroid carcinoma
- C. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
- D. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation: ***Papillary thyroid carcinoma*** - The patient's **TSH elevation**, low T4, and presence of **TPO antibodies** suggests Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which is associated with a higher risk of developing papillary thyroid carcinoma. - Symptoms such as a **firm thyroid nodule** and hoarseness raise suspicion for malignancy, especially in the context of autoimmune thyroid disease. *Follicular thyroid carcinoma* - Typically presents with **cold nodules** on radioactive iodine uptake and is less associated with autoimmune conditions than papillary carcinoma. - The clinical and laboratory features presented are more indicative of **papillary thyroid carcinoma** rather than follicular. *Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma* - Typically presents in older patients, often with a **rapidly enlarging neck mass** and significant **symptoms of obstruction**. - This case lacks key features like aggressive clinical presentation and is more consistent with **differentiated thyroid cancers**. [1] *Medullary thyroid carcinoma* - Arises from **C-cells (parafollicular cells)** and may be associated with **MEN syndromes**. - Not related to **TSH/T4 levels** or autoimmune thyroid conditions, and typically presents with **elevated calcitonin levels**.
Question 3: A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?
- A. 48%
- B. 12%
- C. 24%
- D. 3% (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***3%*** - **Purely cystic thyroid nodules** (as described in this case with "isolated cystic swelling") have a **very low risk of malignancy**, typically **2-3%** or less. - According to **ATA guidelines** and **TIRADS classification**, purely cystic nodules are considered **low suspicion** lesions. - The cystic nature suggests a **benign process** such as a degenerated adenoma, colloid cyst, or simple cyst. - **Fine needle aspiration (FNA)** may still be considered if the nodule is >2 cm or has any suspicious solid components, but is often not required for purely cystic lesions. *48%* - This percentage is **significantly higher** than the actual malignancy risk for a purely cystic thyroid swelling. - Such a **high risk** would typically be associated with **solid nodules** exhibiting highly suspicious ultrasound features such as: - Microcalcifications - Irregular or spiculated margins - Taller-than-wide shape - Marked hypoechogenicity - Extrathyroidal extension *24%* - This percentage represents a **moderate to high risk** of malignancy, which is **not characteristic** of an isolated purely cystic thyroid swelling. - A risk in this range might be seen with: - **Mixed solid-cystic nodules** with predominantly solid components - Solid nodules with **intermediate suspicious features** on ultrasound *12%* - While lower than 24% or 48%, 12% is still **considerably higher** than the generally accepted malignancy risk for purely cystic thyroid nodules. - This risk level could be plausible for: - **Predominantly cystic nodules** with some eccentric solid components - Solid nodules with **mildly suspicious** features on ultrasound
Question 4: A 30-year-old woman presents with thyroid swelling. On investigations, her TSH levels are found to be elevated. Postoperative reports showed lymphocytic infiltration and Hurthle cells. A most probable diagnosis is?
- A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis (Correct Answer)
- B. Graves' disease
- C. Follicular thyroid carcinoma
- D. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation: ***Hashimoto's thyroiditis*** - The presence of **lymphocytic infiltration** and **Hurthle cells** on postoperative pathology is characteristic of Hashimoto's thyroiditis [1,2]. - Elevated **TSH levels** indicate hypothyroidism, which aligns with the autoimmune nature of Hashimoto's affecting thyroid hormone production [1]. *Graves disease* - Typically presents with **hyperthyroidism**, leading to suppressed TSH levels rather than elevation. - Characterized by **thyroid enlargement** and the presence of **autoantibodies** like TSI, not lymphocytic infiltration. *Follicular carcinoma* - While it can cause **thyroid swelling**, it is usually associated with **malignant characteristics** rather than Hurthle cells and lymphocytic infiltration. - TSH levels can be normal, as it does not principally engage in autoimmune thyroid destruction like Hashimoto's. *Medullary carcinoma thyroid* - Originates from **C cells** producing calcitonin, and typically presents with elevated calcitonin levels, not TSH. - Characteristic findings include **C-cell hyperplasia** or **neoplastic changes**, which do not match the presented lymphocytic infiltration. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1090-1092. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 427-428.
Question 5: Which of the following factors is not included in the MACIS score used for the prognosis of papillary thyroid cancer?
- A. Age
- B. Size
- C. Excision completion in surgery
- D. Mitotic index (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mitotic index*** - The MACIS score is a **prognostic scoring system** for papillary thyroid carcinoma, and the mitotic index is **not a component** of this score. - The MACIS score considers factors such as **Metastasis**, **Age**, **Completeness of excision**, **Invasion**, and **Size** of the tumor. *Age* - **Age** is a crucial factor in the MACIS score, with patients older than 40 years typically having a **worse prognosis**. - It differentiates between patients <40 years and ≥40 years, assigning different points based on age. *Size* - The **size** of the primary tumor is an important component of the MACIS score. - Tumors larger than 4 cm (or 40 mm) are associated with a **higher score** and a less favorable prognosis. *Excision completion in surgery* - The **completeness of surgical excision** is a critical factor in the MACIS score. - **Incomplete tumor removal** or gross residual tumor after surgery indicates a worse prognosis and adds points to the score.
Question 6: Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid artery
- A. Sympathetic trunk
- B. Phrenic nerve
- C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve (Correct Answer)
- D. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation: **Recurrent laryngeal nerve** - The **recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN)** runs in close proximity to the inferior thyroid artery, especially on the right side, making it highly vulnerable during ligation or thyroid surgery. - Injury to the RLN can cause **hoarseness** due to paralysis of the vocal cords, as it innervates most intrinsic laryngeal muscles. *Sympathetic trunk* - The **sympathetic trunk** lies more medially and posteriorly in the neck, generally not in the immediate surgical field for inferior thyroid artery ligation. - Injury to the sympathetic trunk typically leads to **Horner's syndrome** (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis). *Phrenic nerve* - The **phrenic nerve** courses over the anterior scalene muscle, lateral to the thyroid gland and major vessels, making it relatively safe during standard thyroid surgery. - Damage to the phrenic nerve would result in **diaphragmatic paralysis** and respiratory compromise. *External branch of superior laryngeal nerve* - The **external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN)** is located more superiorly, running with the superior thyroid artery to the cricothyroid muscle. - Injury to the EBSLN would affect the **pitch of the voice** but is less commonly injured during inferior thyroid artery ligation compared to the RLN.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is true regarding retrosternal goiters?
- A. Majority of the goiters derive their blood supply from mediastinal vessels
- B. Sternal incision is required in all cases
- C. Surgery is performed only if the patient is symptomatic
- D. Most retrosternal goiters can be removed through a neck incision (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Most retrosternal goiters can be removed through a neck incision*** - The majority of retrosternal goiters, even those extending significantly into the mediastinum, originate from cervical thyroid tissue and can be safely delivered through a standard **cervical incision**. - While careful dissection is required to free the mass from surrounding mediastinal structures, **rarely is a sternotomy** or thoracotomy needed. *Majority of the goiters derive their blood supply from mediastinal vessels* - Retrosternal goiters typically maintain their primary **blood supply from the superior and inferior thyroid arteries**, which are cervical vessels. - While some small accessory vessels might come from the mediastinum, the bulk of the vascularization remains **cervical in origin**. *Sternal incision is required in all cases* - A **sternal incision (sternotomy)** is required in only a small percentage (less than 10%) of retrosternal goiter cases, usually for very large, highly adherent, or recurrent goiters, or suspicion of malignancy. - The goal is always to avoid a sternotomy due to its increased morbidity and recovery time compared to a cervical approach. *Surgery is performed only if the patient is symptomatic* - Surgery for retrosternal goiters is often recommended even in **asymptomatic patients** due to the risk of future complications, such as airway compromise, superior vena cava syndrome, or malignancy. - The potential for growth and compression of vital mediastinal structures makes prophylactic surgery a common consideration.
Question 8: A 27-year-old woman presents with 26 weeks of gestation with a thyroid lesion which is found to be papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Which is the best treatment for this patient?
- A. Hemi-thyroidectomy
- B. Total thyroidectomy
- C. Thyroid ablation using radioactive Iodine
- D. Observation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation*** - For **papillary thyroid carcinoma** diagnosed at **26 weeks of gestation**, **observation with close monitoring** is the best management approach. - At 26 weeks (late second trimester/approaching third trimester), the optimal surgical window (14-24 weeks) has passed, and surgery in the third trimester carries increased risk of preterm labor and maternal complications. - **Papillary thyroid carcinoma** has an **indolent course**, and delaying definitive treatment by 3-4 months until after delivery poses **minimal risk** to the mother. - **Close monitoring with ultrasound** should be performed, and **total thyroidectomy** should be planned for **after delivery**. - Surgery during pregnancy is only indicated for **rapidly growing tumors** or evidence of **aggressive features**, which are not mentioned in this case. *Total thyroidectomy* - While **total thyroidectomy** is the definitive treatment for papillary thyroid carcinoma, the **timing is critical** during pregnancy. - Surgery is ideally performed in the **second trimester (14-24 weeks)** to minimize risks to both mother and fetus. - At **26 weeks**, the patient is beyond the optimal surgical window, and performing surgery at this stage or in the third trimester increases the risk of **preterm labor** and other obstetric complications. - Definitive surgery should be **deferred until after delivery** unless there are aggressive features requiring urgent intervention. *Hemi-thyroidectomy* - **Hemi-thyroidectomy** is inadequate for papillary thyroid carcinoma and is only considered for very low-risk papillary microcarcinomas (<1 cm). - It does not provide adequate oncological control for diagnosed papillary carcinoma. *Thyroid ablation using radioactive Iodine* - **Radioactive iodine ablation** is absolutely **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the risk of fetal thyroid destruction, leading to congenital hypothyroidism or cretinism. - While it is used as adjuvant therapy post-thyroidectomy in non-pregnant patients, it must be delayed until after delivery and cessation of breastfeeding.
Question 9: Where is a bruit typically heard in the thyroid gland?
- A. Upper pole (Correct Answer)
- B. Lower pole
- C. Middle part
- D. Lateral aspect
Explanation: **Explanation:** The presence of a thyroid bruit is a classic clinical sign of **Graves' disease** (toxic diffuse goiter). It occurs due to the hyperdynamic circulation and significantly increased vascularity of the gland. **Why the Upper Pole is Correct:** The bruit is most commonly heard over the **upper pole** of the thyroid gland. This is because the **superior thyroid artery**, a direct branch of the external carotid artery, enters the gland at the upper pole. Due to its proximity to a major high-pressure arterial trunk and its relatively superficial location, the turbulent blood flow (hypervascularity) is most audible at this site. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Lower Pole:** While the inferior thyroid artery (from the thyrocervical trunk) supplies the lower pole, it is situated deeper and has a more tortuous course, making a bruit less likely to be localized here compared to the superior pole. * **Middle Part & Lateral Aspect:** These areas represent the body of the lobes. While vascularity is increased throughout in Graves' disease, the primary inflow points (the poles) are the high-yield areas for auscultation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Bruit vs. Thrill:** A bruit is an auditory sign (auscultation), whereas a **thrill** is its tactile equivalent (palpation). Both indicate Graves' disease. 2. **Differential Diagnosis:** A thyroid bruit must be distinguished from a **venous hum** (disappears with pressure over the internal jugular vein) and a **carotid bruit** (heard lateral to the gland). 3. **Significance:** The presence of a bruit is highly specific for Graves' disease and helps differentiate it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis, such as toxic multinodular goiter or thyroiditis.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding medullary cancer of the thyroid?
- A. Secrete Calcitonin
- B. 20-25% are familial
- C. Diarrhea is seen in 30%
- D. These cancers take up Radioactive Iodine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC)** arises from the **parafollicular C-cells**, which are neuroendocrine cells derived from the neural crest. This fundamental embryological origin is the key to understanding its clinical behavior and management. **Why Option D is the Correct (False) Statement:** Radioactive Iodine (RAI) uptake depends on the expression of the Sodium-Iodide Symporter (NIS), which is exclusive to follicular epithelial cells. Since MTC originates from C-cells (not follicular cells), these tumors **do not take up radioactive iodine**. Consequently, RAI ablation is not a therapeutic option for MTC, unlike papillary or follicular thyroid cancers. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (True):** C-cells naturally produce **Calcitonin**. Elevated serum calcitonin is a highly sensitive and specific tumor marker for MTC, used for both diagnosis and monitoring recurrence. * **Option B (True):** Approximately **20–25%** of MTC cases are familial, occurring as part of **MEN 2A, MEN 2B**, or Familial MTC (FMTC) syndromes, usually due to germline **RET proto-oncogene** mutations. The remaining 75–80% are sporadic. * **Option C (True):** Diarrhea occurs in about **30%** of patients, particularly in advanced or metastatic disease. It is caused by the hypersecretion of calcitonin, prostaglandins, or serotonin, which increases intestinal motility. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Amyloid Stroma:** Histologically, MTC is characterized by nests of cells separated by amyloid deposits (stained by Congo Red). * **CEA:** Carcinoembryonic Antigen is another important tumor marker for MTC. * **Screening:** All patients diagnosed with MTC must be screened for **RET mutations** and **Pheochromocytoma** (before surgery) to rule out MEN 2. * **Treatment:** The primary treatment is Total Thyroidectomy with central compartment neck dissection.
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