Pelvic Floor Disorders — MCQs
A patient with second-degree cervical prolapse complains of dribbling of urine when coughing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of urinary incontinence except:
Which of the following statements about the Levator Ani is false?
A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
Kegel's exercises should begin after?
During surgery for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of:
A woman of child-bearing age develops a second-degree uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation of the cervix. What will be the most appropriate management?
Surgical treatment of choice for a 20 year old nulliparous woman with uterine prolapse is:
Injury to which of the following muscles that forms the deep support of the perineal body causes cystocele, enterocele and urethral descent?
Incontinence in elderly females is most commonly due to:
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A patient with second-degree cervical prolapse complains of dribbling of urine when coughing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Cystitis
- B. Stress incontinence (Correct Answer)
- C. Overflow incontinence
- D. Functional incontinence
Explanation: ***Stress incontinence*** - **Stress incontinence** is characterized by involuntary urine leakage due to increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing), which is common in association with **pelvic organ prolapse** like a second-degree cervical prolapse. - The prolapse weakens the **pelvic floor muscles** and supporting structures around the urethra, diminishing its ability to maintain closure during sudden pressure changes. *Cystitis* - **Cystitis** is an inflammation of the bladder, typically presenting with symptoms like painful urination (dysuria), frequent urination, and urgency. - While it can cause bladder irritation, it does not directly lead to urine dribbling with coughing in the absence of other typical infection symptoms. *Overflow incontinence* - **Overflow incontinence** occurs due to an **overfilled bladder** that can't empty completely, leading to constant dribbling or leakage. - This typically results from a **bladder outlet obstruction** or an **underactive detrusor muscle**, not directly from increased abdominal pressure during coughing. *Functional incontinence* - **Functional incontinence** is when a person has control over their bladder but cannot reach the toilet in time due to **physical or cognitive impairments**. - It does not involve a problem with the urinary tract itself but rather with the ability to respond to the urge to urinate.
Question 2: All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of urinary incontinence except:
- A. Ipratropium (Correct Answer)
- B. Oxybutynin
- C. Tolterodine
- D. Darifenacin
Explanation: ***Ipratropium*** - **Ipratropium** is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist primarily used as a **bronchodilator** in obstructive lung diseases. - While it has anticholinergic properties, it is not typically used for **urinary incontinence** due to its limited systemic absorption and short duration of action, making it less effective for bladder control compared to other agents. *Oxybutynin* - **Oxybutynin** is a commonly prescribed **muscarinic antagonist** that acts by relaxing the bladder detrusor muscle, increasing bladder capacity and reducing involuntary contractions. - It is effective in treating **overactive bladder** and urge incontinence. *Tolterodine* - **Tolterodine** is a **muscarinic receptor antagonist** that specifically targets M2 and M3 receptors in the bladder, reducing bladder hyperreactivity. - It is used for the symptomatic treatment of **urge incontinence** and overactive bladder. *Darifenacin* - **Darifenacin** is a highly M3-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist, which means it primarily blocks the M3 receptors responsible for **detrusor muscle contraction**. - Its selectivity helps minimize side effects common to less selective anticholinergics and is used for the treatment of **overactive bladder** with symptoms of urgency, frequency, and urge incontinence.
Question 3: Which of the following statements about the Levator Ani is false?
- A. Converges downwards & medially
- B. Attached to the pelvic brim. (Correct Answer)
- C. Made up of iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and puborectalis.
- D. Supports pelvic viscera.
Explanation: Attached to the pelvic brim - This statement is **false** because the levator ani does not attach to the pelvic brim (the inlet of the true pelvis). - The levator ani originates from: the **posterior surface of the body of pubis**, the **tendinous arch of obturator fascia** (thickening of obturator fascia on lateral pelvic wall), and the **ischial spine**. - All these attachments are on the **lateral pelvic wall below the pelvic brim**, not at the pelvic brim itself. - The muscles insert into the **perineal body**, **anococcygeal ligament**, and walls of pelvic viscera. *Converges downwards & medially* - This statement is **true** - the levator ani muscles arise from lateral attachments on the pelvic sidewalls and converge **medially and downward** toward the midline. - This creates the characteristic **funnel-shaped pelvic diaphragm** that narrows inferiorly. - The fibers run inferomedially to form a muscular sling supporting pelvic structures. *Supports pelvic viscera* - This is the **primary function** of the levator ani muscle group [1]. - It forms a muscular floor that supports the **bladder, uterus/prostate, and rectum**, preventing prolapse. - The muscle maintains the position of pelvic organs against intra-abdominal pressure. *Made up of iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and puborectalis* - This statement is **correct** - the levator ani consists of three main components [1]: - **Puborectalis** - forms a sling around the anorectal junction, important for fecal continence [1]. - **Pubococcygeus** - middle portion, supports pelvic viscera [1]. - **Iliococcygeus** - most posterior portion, extends from ischial spine to coccyx [1].
Question 4: A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
- C. Transvaginal USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound
Explanation: ***Transvaginal USG*** - This is the **first-line investigation** for evaluating pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, and adnexal tenderness due to its ability to provide **high-resolution images** of the uterus, ovaries, and surrounding structures to identify potential pathology like **endometriomas** or other adnexal masses. - It allows for detailed assessment of **ovarian cysts**, fibroids, and other pelvic abnormalities, which can explain the patient's symptoms. *Colposcopy* - This procedure is primarily used to closely examine the **cervix, vagina, and vulva** for abnormal cells, often following an abnormal Pap test. - It is not the initial step for investigating generalized pelvic pain, dyspareunia, or adnexal tenderness. *Diagnostic laparoscopy* - While a **diagnostic laparoscopy** can provide a definitive diagnosis for conditions like **endometriosis**, it is an **invasive surgical procedure** and typically reserved for cases where non-invasive imaging, such as transvaginal ultrasound, has not yielded a clear diagnosis or when conservative management has failed. - It is not considered the first-step investigation due to its **invasive nature** and associated risks. *Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound* - A **transabdominal pelvic ultrasound** provides a broader view of the pelvic organs but often has **lower resolution** and is less accurate for detailed assessment of the uterus, ovaries, and adnexa compared to transvaginal ultrasound, especially in obese patients. - It is often used if a transvaginal ultrasound is not feasible or for assessing larger pelvic masses, but the **transvaginal approach** is superior for detailed evaluation of the female reproductive organs.
Question 5: Kegel's exercises should begin after?
- A. 24 hours after delivery
- B. 3 weeks after delivery
- C. 6 weeks after delivery
- D. Immediately after delivery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Immediately after delivery*** - **Kegel's exercises** can be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, provided the woman feels comfortable and there are no contraindications. - Early commencement helps **restore pelvic floor muscle tone**, reduce urinary incontinence, and promote healing. *24 hours after delivery* - While it is not strictly incorrect to start at 24 hours, waiting unnecessarily delays the potential benefits of **pelvic floor muscle training** for postpartum recovery. - The goal is to start as early as comfort allows, which can often be within the first few hours. *3 weeks after delivery* - Waiting three weeks to begin **Kegel's exercises** would be a significant delay in postpartum recovery. - Early engagement is crucial for **optimal rehabilitation** of the pelvic floor and prevention of long-term issues. *6 weeks after delivery* - Six weeks after delivery is typically the time for the **postpartum check-up**, but it is too late to *begin* Kegel's exercises for optimal benefit. - By this point, opportunities for **early muscle re-education** and symptom prevention would have been missed.
Question 6: During surgery for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of:
- A. Left face
- B. Right shoulder & trunk
- C. Right face
- D. Right Leg and perineum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Right Leg and perineum - The **paracentral lobule** is located in the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres and contains the cortical representations for the leg and perineum. [1] - Injury to the **left paracentral lobule** would therefore affect motor control on the contralateral side, specifically the **right leg and perineum**. *Left face* - Motor control for the face is primarily located in the **lateral aspects of the precentral gyrus**, not the paracentral lobule. - A left-sided lesion affecting the face would typically cause **contralateral (right) facial weakness**, not ipsilateral (left). *Right shoulder & trunk* - The motor cortex for the shoulder and trunk is located more **superior and lateral** in the precentral gyrus, distal to the paracentral lobule. - Injury to the paracentral lobule specifically spares these regions. *Right face* - As mentioned, the motor control for the face resides in the **lateral precentral gyrus**. - While this is the contralateral side, the specific anatomical location of the paracentral lobule does not typically involve the face.
Question 7: A woman of child-bearing age develops a second-degree uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation of the cervix. What will be the most appropriate management?
- A. Fothergill's operation (Correct Answer)
- B. Sling operation
- C. Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair
- D. Amputation of the cervix
Explanation: ***Fothergill's operation*** - This procedure, also known as **mancuni operation**, is ideal for women of childbearing age with **second-degree uterine prolapse** and **supravaginal elongation of the cervix**. - It involves **cervical amputation**, anterior colporrhaphy, and posterior colpoperineorrhaphy, effectively correcting the prolapse while preserving the uterus for future pregnancies. *Sling operation* - A sling operation (e.g., sacrocolpopexy) is primarily used for **vaginal vault prolapse** after hysterectomy, or for severe uterine prolapse when preservation of the uterus is not a priority. - It involves suspending the uterus or vagina using synthetic mesh or biological material, which is not the first-line for this specific presentation in a woman desiring future fertility. *Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair* - This approach is typically chosen for women who have **completed childbearing** or do not desire future pregnancies, as it involves removal of the uterus. - While it effectively corrects prolapse, it is not the most appropriate management for a woman of childbearing age who may wish to conceive. *Amputation of the cervix* - While cervical amputation is a component of Fothergill's operation, performing only **cervical amputation in isolation** would not adequately address the entire prolapse or offer sufficient pelvic floor support. - This option is incomplete as a definitive management strategy for uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation.
Question 8: Surgical treatment of choice for a 20 year old nulliparous woman with uterine prolapse is:
- A. Sacrocolpopexy (Correct Answer)
- B. Le Forte’s repair
- C. Sling surgery
- D. Abdominal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair
Explanation: ***Sacrocolpopexy (Sacrohysteropexy variant)*** - For a **young, nulliparous woman**, the procedure of choice is **sacrohysteropexy** (also called sacrocervicopexy), which involves attaching the **uterus/cervix** to the **sacrum** using synthetic mesh, providing durable support while preserving the uterus. - This is ideal for young women as it **preserves fertility potential** and maintains vaginal length and sexual function. - The term sacrocolpopexy in this context refers to the uterine-preserving variant, crucial for women desiring future pregnancy. *Le Forte's repair* - This is an **obliterative procedure** primarily used in elderly women who are **no longer sexually active**, involving partial closure of the vagina. - It is absolutely contraindicated in a young, nulliparous woman who desires future sexual function and pregnancy. *Sling surgery* - **Sling surgery** is primarily indicated for **stress urinary incontinence**, not uterine prolapse. - While incontinence can co-exist with prolapse, a sling alone does not address uterine or vaginal apex support. *Abdominal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair* - **Hysterectomy** removes the uterus and would **eliminate fertility**, which is unacceptable for a young, nulliparous woman desiring children. - Though effective for prolapse, it is an overly aggressive approach; uterine-preserving procedures like sacrohysteropexy are strongly preferred for fertility preservation.
Question 9: Injury to which of the following muscles that forms the deep support of the perineal body causes cystocele, enterocele and urethral descent?
- A. Sphincter of urethra and anus
- B. Pubococcygeus (Correct Answer)
- C. Bulbospongiosus
- D. Ischiocavernosus
Explanation: ***Pubococcygeus*** - The **pubococcygeus muscle** is a major component of the **levator ani muscle** group, forming the primary support structure of the pelvic floor [1]. Damage to this muscle impairs the support for the bladder, rectum, and uterus, leading to prolapse conditions like **cystocele**, **enterocele**, and **urethral descent**. - Its integrity is crucial for maintaining the position of pelvic organs and proper function of the urinary and defecatory systems, as it directly supports the vagina, rectum, and bladder neck [3]. *Sphincter of urethra and anus* - The **external urethral sphincter** primarily controls voluntary urination, and its injury mainly leads to **stress urinary incontinence**, not necessarily prolapse [2]. - The **external anal sphincter** controls defecation, and its injury would primarily lead to **fecal incontinence**, not cystocele, enterocele, or urethral descent [2]. *Bulbospongiosus* - The **bulbospongiosus muscle** is superficial, supporting the clitoris and compressing erectile tissue in females, and expelling semen/urine in males. - Its injury would primarily affect sexual function and perineal body integrity but is **not a primary cause of pelvic organ prolapse** like cystocele or enterocele [3]. *Ischiocavernosus* - The **ischiocavernosus muscle** is also superficial, maintaining erection of the clitoris/penis by compressing the crura. - Injury to this muscle would mainly disrupt **erectile function** and contribute minimally to pelvic organ support or prolapse.
Question 10: Incontinence in elderly females is most commonly due to:
- A. Outlet obstruction
- B. Vesicovaginal fistula
- C. True stress incontinence
- D. Detrusor instability (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Detrusor instability*** - This condition is the most common cause of **urge incontinence** in elderly females, characterized by **involuntary contractions of the detrusor muscle** [1]. - It leads to a sudden, strong urge to urinate that is difficult to postpone, often resulting in **leaking of urine** [1]. *Vesicovaginal fistula* - A **vesicovaginal fistula** is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, usually caused by trauma or surgery, leading to continuous leakage. - While it causes incontinence, it is a relatively **rare cause** compared to detrusor instability in the general elderly female population. *Outlet obstruction* - **Outlet obstruction** in females is uncommon and typically presents with **overflow incontinence**, not urge incontinence, where the bladder cannot empty properly. - Causes can include severe prolapse or urethral strictures, which are not the most frequent cause of incontinence in this demographic. *True stress incontinence* - **Stress incontinence** occurs when there is leakage of urine due to increased **intra-abdominal pressure** (like coughing, sneezing, or laughing) in the absence of a detrusor contraction. - While common in older women, **detrusor instability (urge incontinence)** becomes more prevalent with advanced age as the primary cause of incontinence [1].
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