Breast Cancer Screening — MCQs
Which of the following statements are true? 1. Due to increasing mammography there occurs over diagnosis of breast carcinoma 2. Colon cancer screening is done by digital rectal examination 3. Oral cancer screening is done by visual inspection 4. Cervix cancer screening is done by a pap smear
ACR score 4 in breast imaging indicates
What is not an advantage of USG over mammography?
A 45-year-old female presents with a 2 cm thyroid nodule. Which TIRADS category has >95% risk of malignancy?
Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?
In which of the following situations is breast conservation surgery not indicated?
Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
Age for regular mammography screening in average-risk women is
A 55-year-old female patient presented with a $4 \times 3 \mathrm{~cm}$ lump in the right upper outer quadrant, with no axillary lymph node involvement. Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She underwent breast conservation surgery, and the final HPE report showed high nuclear-grade DCIS with necrosis and 10 mm margin clearance. What is the further management?
Which of the following factors is NOT a component of the Van Nuys prognostic index?
Breast Cancer Screening Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements are true? 1. Due to increasing mammography there occurs over diagnosis of breast carcinoma 2. Colon cancer screening is done by digital rectal examination 3. Oral cancer screening is done by visual inspection 4. Cervix cancer screening is done by a pap smear
- A. 1,2,3,4
- B. 4 only
- C. 1,3,4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 2,3,4
Explanation: ***Correct: 1,3,4*** - **Statement 1 is TRUE**: Overdiagnosis is a well-documented consequence of increased mammography screening. It detects slow-growing tumors that might never have caused clinical symptoms or harm during a woman's lifetime, leading to unnecessary treatment and associated morbidities. - **Statement 3 is TRUE**: Oral cancer screening primarily involves thorough visual inspection by a healthcare professional to identify suspicious lesions, ulcers, or color changes in the oral cavity. - **Statement 4 is TRUE**: Cervical cancer screening is effectively done by Pap smear, which detects precancerous and cancerous cells. - **Statement 2 is FALSE**: Digital rectal examination is NOT the primary screening method for colon cancer. Standard screening methods include colonoscopy, fecal occult blood testing (FOBT), and fecal immunochemical test (FIT). *Incorrect: 1,2,3,4* - While statements 1, 3, and 4 are true, statement 2 is incorrect. Digital rectal examination is not a primary or definitive screening method for colon cancer—it only examines the rectum and misses most of the colon. *Incorrect: 4 only* - While cervical cancer screening by Pap smear is true, this option is incomplete as it misses other true statements (1 and 3) regarding mammography overdiagnosis and oral cancer screening. *Incorrect: 2,3,4* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2. Colon cancer screening is NOT done by digital rectal examination. Proper screening methods include colonoscopy, FOBT, FIT, and flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Question 2: ACR score 4 in breast imaging indicates
- A. Probably benign
- B. Highly suggestive of malignancy
- C. Negative
- D. Suspicious abnormality (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suspicious abnormality*** - An **ACR BI-RADS category 4** indicates a **suspicious abnormality** that necessitates a biopsy to rule out malignancy. - The risk of malignancy in this category ranges from **2% to 94%**, representing findings that do not have the classic appearance of malignancy but have a definite probability of being cancer. *Probably benign* - This description corresponds to an **ACR BI-RADS category 3**, which suggests a less than 2% chance of malignancy. - Category 3 findings are usually followed up with **short-term interval imaging** (e.g., 6 months) to assess stability. *Highly suggestive of malignancy* - This corresponds to an **ACR BI-RADS category 5**, where the findings almost certainly represent **malignancy** (at least 95% probability). - Category 5 lesions require **appropriate action**, such as biopsy or definitive treatment, based on the highest level of suspicion. *Negative* - This description is for an **ACR BI-RADS category 1**, meaning there are **no significant findings** and the breast is normal. - Category 1 indicates that the study is completed and no further action is needed beyond routine screening.
Question 3: What is not an advantage of USG over mammography?
- A. Can be used for guided biopsy
- B. Superior detection of microcalcifications (Correct Answer)
- C. In young females with dense breasts
- D. Can be used to differentiate solid VS cystic
Explanation: ***Superior detection of microcalcifications*** - **Mammography** is the gold standard for detecting **microcalcifications**, which can be a key indicator of **ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)** or early invasive breast cancer. - **Ultrasound (USG)** has limited sensitivity for detecting and characterizing microcalcifications. *Can be used for guided biopsy* - **USG-guided biopsy** is a common and advantageous technique for obtaining tissue samples from suspicious lesions in the breast or other organs. - This allows for **real-time visualization** of the needle, improving accuracy and reducing complications. *Can be used to differentiate solid VS cystic* - **USG** excels at distinguishing between **solid masses and fluid-filled cysts** due to differences in sound wave reflection. - This capability is crucial in characterizing breast lesions and often eliminates the need for further invasive procedures for benign cysts. *In young females with dense breasts* - **Dense breast tissue** in young females can obscure lesions on mammography, making interpretation difficult. - **USG** is particularly valuable in this population because it is not hindered by breast density and can provide a clearer view of underlying pathology.
Question 4: A 45-year-old female presents with a 2 cm thyroid nodule. Which TIRADS category has >95% risk of malignancy?
- A. TIRADS 4
- B. TIRADS 2
- C. TIRADS 5 (Correct Answer)
- D. TIRADS 3
Explanation: ***TIRADS 5*** - A **TIRADS 5** classification indicates a **highly suspicious** nodule with features strongly suggestive of **malignancy**. - This category corresponds to a **>95% risk of malignancy**, necessitating further investigation such as fine-needle aspiration (FNA). *TIRADS 4* - **TIRADS 4** nodules are classified as **moderately suspicious** for malignancy, with a risk ranging from **5% to 50%**. - While requiring follow-up and often FNA, the risk is significantly lower than for TIRADS 5. *TIRADS 2* - **TIRADS 2** nodules are considered **benign**, with a **0% risk of malignancy** (or extremely low). - These nodules typically have features like **spongiform appearance** or purely cystic composition. *TIRADS 3* - **TIRADS 3** nodules are classified as **mildly suspicious**, with a malignancy risk between **0% and 5%**. - They often have some indeterminate features but are predominantly considered to be low risk.
Question 5: Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?
- A. Multicentric disease
- B. Previous radiation to breast
- C. Large tumor size
- D. Small tumor size (<3cm) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Small tumor size (<3cm)*** ✓ - A small tumor size is **NOT a contraindication** for breast-conserving surgery; it is actually a **favorable condition** and an indication for breast conservation. - Small tumors allow for complete tumor removal with good cosmetic outcomes and adequate margins. - This is the **correct answer** as it is the only option that is NOT a relative contraindication. *Multicentric disease* - **Multicentric disease** refers to the presence of multiple tumor foci in **different quadrants** of the breast, making complete surgical removal challenging with breast-conserving surgery. - This is a **relative contraindication** as it increases the risk of **positive margins** and local recurrence, making mastectomy often a more appropriate option. *Previous radiation to breast* - Prior radiation therapy to the breast is a **contraindication** (often considered absolute) for subsequent breast radiation, which is an essential component of breast-conserving therapy. - Re-irradiation carries a high risk of severe **skin and tissue toxicity**, making further breast conservation unfeasible. *Large tumor size* - A large tumor size is a **relative contraindication** as it can make it difficult to achieve **clear surgical margins** while maintaining an acceptable cosmetic result. - However, **neoadjuvant chemotherapy** may downstage large tumors to make them suitable for breast-conserving surgery. - Without tumor reduction, it often requires **mastectomy**.
Question 6: In which of the following situations is breast conservation surgery not indicated?
- A. SLE
- B. Large pendular breast
- C. Diffuse microcalcification
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All listed scenarios—**large pendular breast**, **SLE**, and **diffuse microcalcification**—represent situations where breast conservation surgery is generally contraindicated or challenging. - Their presence often necessitates alternative treatment approaches, such as mastectomy, to achieve optimal oncologic and cosmetic outcomes. *Large pendular breast* - While not an absolute contraindication, a **very large or pendulous breast** can make it difficult to achieve a satisfactory cosmetic outcome after breast conservation surgery. - The disproportionate breast size post-lumpectomy may lead to significant **asymmetry**, requiring further reconstructive procedures. *SLE* - Patients with **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** are at an increased risk of complications from radiation therapy, a mandatory component of breast conservation surgery. - They tend to experience more severe and prolonged **acute and chronic skin reactions** to radiation, which can significantly impair healing and quality of life. *Diffuse microcalcification* - **Diffuse microcalcification** within the breast can indicate widespread in situ carcinoma (e.g., DCIS) or an invasive carcinoma with extensive intraductal component. - In such cases, achieving **clear surgical margins** with breast conservation surgery can be challenging and often leads to multiple re-excisions or an increased risk of local recurrence.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
- A. USG/ mammography
- B. Breast self examination (Correct Answer)
- C. Clinical examination
- D. FNAC/ trucut biopsy
Explanation: ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.
Question 8: Age for regular mammography screening in average-risk women is
- A. 40 (Correct Answer)
- B. 55
- C. 25
- D. 35
Explanation: ***40*** - Current guidelines from organizations like the **American Cancer Society (ACS)** recommend that women at **average risk** begin regular annual mammography screening at **age 40**. - While other organizations have slightly different recommendations, **age 40** is a commonly cited starting point to maximize benefits for average-risk women. *55* - **Age 55** is typically when some guidelines suggest transitioning to **biennial** (every other year) mammography screening, rather than initiating it. - Delaying initial screening until 55 would miss potential early detection opportunities for many women. *25* - **Age 25** is generally considered too young for routine mammography screening in **average-risk women**, as breast tissue is denser and cancer incidence is very low. - Screening this early is reserved for high-risk individuals with specific genetic mutations or strong family histories. *35* - While **age 35** is closer to the recommended starting age, it is generally earlier than the standard guidelines for **average-risk women**. - Some high-risk individuals might begin screening around this age, but it's not the universal recommendation for the general population.
Question 9: A 55-year-old female patient presented with a $4 \times 3 \mathrm{~cm}$ lump in the right upper outer quadrant, with no axillary lymph node involvement. Mammography revealed BIRADS 4b staging. She underwent breast conservation surgery, and the final HPE report showed high nuclear-grade DCIS with necrosis and 10 mm margin clearance. What is the further management?
- A. Follow up 6 monthly for 2 years and then yearly follow up
- B. Trastuzumab therapy
- C. Adjuvant chemotherapy
- D. Adjuvant radiotherapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adjuvant radiotherapy*** - For **high-grade DCIS** with necrosis after breast conservation surgery, adjuvant radiotherapy significantly reduces the risk of **local recurrence** (by approximately 50%). - Even with adequate margin clearance (10 mm), radiotherapy is recommended to treat **potential residual microscopic disease** elsewhere in the breast tissue. - This is the **standard of care** for high-grade DCIS post-BCS, particularly when necrosis is present. *Follow up 6 monthly for 2 years and then yearly follow up* - While regular follow-up is essential for all breast cancer patients, it is **not sufficient alone** for high-grade DCIS treated with breast conservation. - **Adjuvant radiotherapy** is necessary to reduce recurrence risk before initiating the follow-up schedule. *Trastuzumab therapy* - **Trastuzumab** is specifically indicated for **HER2-positive invasive breast cancer**. - The patient has **DCIS**, which is **non-invasive (in situ)**, making trastuzumab inappropriate. - There is no role for targeted therapy in DCIS management. *Adjuvant chemotherapy* - **Adjuvant chemotherapy** is generally reserved for **invasive breast cancers**, especially those with high-risk features like lymph node involvement or aggressive tumor biology. - For **DCIS**, even high-grade with necrosis, chemotherapy is **not indicated** as it provides no proven benefit for non-invasive disease.
Question 10: Which of the following factors is NOT a component of the Van Nuys prognostic index?
- A. Age
- B. Tumor size
- C. Estrogen receptor (ER) status (Correct Answer)
- D. Margin width
Explanation: ***Estrogen receptor (ER) status*** - The **Van Nuys prognostic index** (VNPI) for **ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)** assesses factors related to local recurrence risk after breast-conserving therapy. - The VNPI includes: **tumor size, margin width, pathologic classification (nuclear grade and necrosis), and age**. - While ER status is an important prognostic factor in **invasive breast cancer**, it is **not included** in the VNPI scoring system for DCIS. *Age* - **Age** is a key component of the VNPI, with younger patients having higher risk of local recurrence. - Patients **under 40 years** receive score 3, **40-60 years** receive score 2, and **over 60 years** receive score 1. *Tumor size* - The **size of the DCIS lesion** is a critical component of the VNPI. - Lesions **≥41 mm** receive score 3, **16-40 mm** receive score 2, and **≤15 mm** receive score 1. *Margin width* - **Surgical margin width** is an essential component of the VNPI. - Margins **<1 mm** receive score 3, **1-9 mm** receive score 2, and **≥10 mm** receive score 1.
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