Vascular Ultrasonography — MCQs
Investigation of choice for screening of proximal internal carotid artery stenosis is :
How does 'hepatic vein thrombosis' present on Doppler ultrasound?
'Triphasic waveform' on colour Doppler is of
Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-
The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
A 55-year-old male, known smoker, complains of calf pain while walking. He experiences calf pain while walking but can continue walking with effort. Which grade of claudication does this patient fall under?
Best advantage of doing transcranial Doppler ultrasound?
Frequency of ultrasound waves in USG -
In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by
Which of the following is typically seen on ultrasound in acute pyelonephritis?
Vascular Ultrasonography Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Investigation of choice for screening of proximal internal carotid artery stenosis is :
- A. Doppler ultrasound (USG) (Correct Answer)
- B. CT angiography
- C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- D. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
Explanation: ***Doppler ultrasound (USG)*** - **Doppler ultrasound** is the investigation of choice for screening carotid artery stenosis due to its **non-invasive nature**, widespread availability, and cost-effectiveness. It provides excellent anatomical information and hemodynamics, including **blood flow velocity** and presence of **plaque**. - It can effectively estimate the degree of **stenosis** based on flow characteristics and is safe for serial monitoring. *CT angiography* - **CT angiography** provides detailed anatomical imaging of the carotid arteries but involves **ionizing radiation** and **iodinated contrast agents**, making it less suitable for routine screening, especially in patients with renal impairment or contrast allergies. - While it offers higher resolution for certain plaque characteristics, it’s typically reserved for cases where ultrasound findings are inconclusive or for surgical planning. *Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)* - **MRI** and **MR angiography (MRA)** can visualize carotid stenosis without ionizing radiation but are more expensive and time-consuming than ultrasound, and can be limited by artifacts from patient movement. - Patients with **claustrophobia** or **metallic implants** may not be suitable for MRI, making it less ideal for general screening. *Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)* - **Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)** is the **gold standard** for diagnosing carotid stenosis as it provides the most detailed and accurate images of the arterial lumen. However, it is an **invasive procedure** associated with risks such as stroke, arterial dissection, contrast nephropathy, and radiation exposure. - Due to its invasiveness and potential complications, DSA is typically reserved for cases with **discordant non-invasive findings** or prior to intervention rather than as a primary screening tool.
Question 2: How does 'hepatic vein thrombosis' present on Doppler ultrasound?
- A. Absent or reversed flow (Correct Answer)
- B. Anechoic appearance
- C. Increased flow
- D. Normal triphasic flow
Explanation: ***Absent or reversed flow*** - **Hepatic vein thrombosis** directly obstructs blood flow, leading to either an absence of detectable flow or, in some cases, reversal of flow due to high downstream pressure and collateral formation. - This finding on **Doppler ultrasound** is a key indicator of **Budd-Chiari syndrome**, caused by the obstruction of hepatic venous outflow. *Anechoic appearance* - An **anechoic appearance** on ultrasound typically refers to a fluid-filled structure, such as a cyst or gallbladder, which allows sound waves to pass through without reflection. - While thrombosis can affect the lumen of a vessel, the thrombus itself often has some echogenicity, and the primary Doppler finding relates to flow dynamics, not simply the anechoic nature of the vessel. *Increased flow* - **Increased flow** in the hepatic veins would suggest a hyperdynamic state or shunting, which is not characteristic of venous thrombosis. - Thrombosis causes obstruction, leading to a reduction or cessation of flow, not an increase. *Normal triphasic flow* - **Normal triphasic flow** in the hepatic veins is characterized by three distinct phases corresponding to cardiac cycles: antegrade flow during systole and diastole, and a brief period of reversed flow during atrial contraction. - The presence of thrombosis would disrupt this normal pattern, making it an unlikely finding in **hepatic vein thrombosis**.
Question 3: 'Triphasic waveform' on colour Doppler is of
- A. Portal vein
- B. Hepatic artery
- C. Hepatic vein (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Hepatic vein*** - A normal hepatic vein Doppler waveform is **triphasic**, showing two antegrade (towards the heart) waves corresponding to **ventricular systole (S wave)** and **diastole (D wave)**, and one small retrograde (away from the heart) wave corresponding to **atrial contraction (a wave)**. - This triphasic pattern reflects the cyclic pressure changes in the right atrium and is crucial for assessing **right heart function** and conditions affecting hepatic venous outflow. *Portal vein* - The portal vein typically exhibits a **monophasic waveform** with continuous, low-velocity, hepatopetal (towards the liver) flow, often with slight undulations due to respiration. - The absence of a triphasic pattern differentiates it from the hepatic veins, as its flow is driven by pressure differences from the mesenteric circulation, not directly by cardiac cycles. *Hepatic artery* - The hepatic artery demonstrates a **high-resistive, biphasic waveform** with a sharp systolic peak and continuous diastolic flow, reflecting its essential role in supplying oxygenated blood to the liver parenchyma. - It does not show a triphasic pattern, which is characteristic of venous structures influenced by right atrial pressures. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because only the **hepatic veins** typically display a triphasic waveform; the portal vein and hepatic artery have distinct, different waveform patterns. - Each vessel's unique flow pattern is indicative of its specific physiological role and anatomical connection to the cardiac cycle.
Question 4: Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is-
- A. Ultrasonography (FAST)
- B. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
- C. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
- D. CT Scan (Computed Tomography) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT Scan (Computed Tomography)*** - **CT scans** offer superior anatomical detail and can accurately detect organ damage, hemorrhage, and other injuries in **hemodynamically stable** patients with abdominal trauma. - It is considered the **most sensitive** and specific imaging modality for evaluating blunt and penetrating abdominal trauma when the patient can tolerate the study. *Ultrasonography (FAST)* - While effective for detecting **free fluid** (blood) in specific abdominal areas, **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)** has lower sensitivity for solid organ injuries or bowel perforations. - Its primary role is rapid assessment for **hemoperitoneum** to guide immediate management in unstable patients, not detailed injury characterization. *Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)* - **DPL** is an invasive procedure with high sensitivity for detecting **intraperitoneal bleeding**, but it does not identify specific organ injuries or retroperitoneal hemorrhage. - It is rarely used in hemodynamically stable patients due to its invasiveness and the availability of more detailed imaging techniques. *MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)* - **MRI** provides excellent soft tissue contrast but is typically too **time-consuming** and less accessible in urgent trauma settings compared to CT. - It's generally not the first-line investigation for acute abdominal trauma due to motion artifacts and limited utility in detecting air or bone injuries.
Question 5: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
- A. Computed tomography (Correct Answer)
- B. Ultrasonography
- C. Magnetic resonance imaging
- D. Angiography
Explanation: ***Computed tomography*** **Computed tomography (CT)**, particularly **CT angiography (CTA)**, is widely considered the procedure of choice for evaluating aneurysms due to its **rapid acquisition**, **high spatial resolution**, and ability to visualize the vessel lumen and surrounding structures. **Key advantages:** - Particularly useful for assessing aneurysm size, morphology, thrombus formation, and rupture - Excellent for both emergent and elective settings - Widely available and fast imaging acquisition - Provides comprehensive anatomical detail *Ultrasonography* **Ultrasonography** is an excellent and cost-effective **screening tool for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)** because it is non-invasive and does not involve radiation. However, its utility is limited for: - Complex aneurysms requiring detailed anatomical information - Less accessible locations (e.g., thoracic, cerebral aneurysms) - **Operator dependence** and **limited field of view** restrict its use as a definitive diagnostic tool *Magnetic resonance imaging* **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** and **magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)** provide excellent soft tissue contrast without ionizing radiation and can accurately evaluate aneurysm morphology and flow characteristics. However, MRI is: - More time-consuming and expensive - May be contraindicated in patients with metallic implants or claustrophobia - Less suitable for initial acute evaluation compared to CT *Angiography* **Angiography**, traditionally a catheter-based invasive procedure, provides detailed images of the vessel lumen and is excellent for evaluating precise anatomy and planning endovascular repair. While it offers highly detailed images, its: - Invasiveness - Exposure to radiation and contrast agents - Potential for complications These factors typically reserve it for **interventional planning** or when non-invasive methods are inconclusive, rather than as the primary diagnostic tool.
Question 6: A 55-year-old male, known smoker, complains of calf pain while walking. He experiences calf pain while walking but can continue walking with effort. Which grade of claudication does this patient fall under?
- A. Grade I (Mild claudication)
- B. Grade II (Moderate claudication) (Correct Answer)
- C. Grade III (Severe claudication)
- D. Grade IV (Ischemic rest pain)
Explanation: ***Grade II (Moderate claudication)*** - **Grade II claudication** is characterized by **intermittent claudication** where the patient experiences pain while walking but can **continue walking with effort**. - This level of claudication reflects a moderate degree of peripheral arterial disease, where blood flow is sufficiently compromised to cause pain with exertion but not severe enough to force immediate cessation of activity. - The patient in this scenario can continue ambulation despite discomfort, which is the defining feature of this grade. *Grade I (Mild claudication)* - **Grade I claudication** involves discomfort or pain that the patient can **tolerate without significantly altering their gait or pace**. - In this stage, the pain is minimal, and the patient may perceive it as a dull ache or mild fatigue rather than true pain. - Walking can continue without significant effort or limitation. *Grade III (Severe claudication)* - **Grade III claudication** is marked by pain that is **severe enough to stop the patient from walking within a short distance** (typically less than 200 meters). - The pain forces the patient to rest and recover before they can resume walking. - This represents significant functional limitation in daily activities. *Grade IV (Ischemic rest pain)* - **Grade IV**, also known as **critical limb ischemia**, involves **pain even at rest**, especially in the feet or toes, often worsening at night when the limb is elevated. - This stage indicates severe arterial obstruction and is frequently associated with **ulcers, non-healing wounds, or gangrene**. - This represents advanced peripheral arterial disease requiring urgent intervention. **Note:** This grading system is a simplified clinical classification. The standard medical classifications for peripheral arterial disease are the **Fontaine classification** (Stages I-IV) and **Rutherford classification** (Categories 0-6).
Question 7: Best advantage of doing transcranial Doppler ultrasound?
- A. Detect brain blood vessels stenosis
- B. Detect AV malformation
- C. Detect emboli
- D. Detect vasospasm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Detect vasospasm*** - **Transcranial Doppler (TCD) ultrasound** is highly effective for monitoring and detecting **cerebral vasospasm**, particularly after a **subarachnoid hemorrhage**. - It allows for non-invasive, continuous, and dynamic assessment of **blood flow velocities** in the **intracranial arteries**, which increase significantly during vasospasm. *Detect brain blood vessels stenosis* - While TCD can indicate increased flow velocities suggestive of **stenosis**, it is less accurate for precise anatomical localization and quantification compared to **CTA** or **MRA**. - Its ability to directly visualize the vessel lumen and the degree of stenosis is limited by its reliance on **flow dynamics**. *Detect AV malformation* - TCD can sometimes detect altered flow patterns associated with **arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)**, but it lacks the spatial resolution to definitively diagnose or characterize these complex vascular structures. - **Cerebral angiography** or **MRA** are the gold standards for diagnosing and mapping **AVMs**. *Detect emboli* - TCD can detect **microembolic signals (MES)**, which are transient high-intensity signals indicating the passage of emboli through the cerebral circulation. - However, while it can detect emboli, it is not its *best* or primary advantage compared to its utility in monitoring **vasospasm**, which directly impacts patient management and prognosis in certain acute conditions.
Question 8: Frequency of ultrasound waves in USG -
- A. 2000 Hz
- B. 5000 Hz
- C. < 2 MHz
- D. >2 MHz (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***>2 MHz*** - Medical diagnostic ultrasound typically uses frequencies in the **range of 2-15 MHz**, with some applications extending from 1-20 MHz. - Frequencies **above 2 MHz** are considered the standard for diagnostic ultrasonography, providing adequate **spatial resolution** and tissue penetration for imaging internal structures. - **Frequency selection** depends on the application: - **2-5 MHz**: Deep structures (abdominal, obstetric imaging) - better penetration - **5-10 MHz**: Vascular studies, cardiac imaging - **7-15 MHz**: Superficial structures (thyroid, breast, musculoskeletal) - better resolution - Higher frequencies provide better resolution but less penetration; the choice represents a trade-off based on clinical needs. *2000 Hz* - This frequency (2 kHz) falls within the **audible range** for humans (20 Hz to 20 kHz). - Such low frequencies would not provide the necessary **spatial resolution** for diagnostic imaging and lack the characteristics needed for medical ultrasound. *5000 Hz* - At 5 kHz, this is still within the **audible frequency range**. - These frequencies are far too low for medical ultrasound imaging, which requires **megahertz frequencies** to generate diagnostically useful images with adequate detail. *< 2 MHz* - Frequencies below 2 MHz, while technically ultrasound (>20 kHz), are generally **below the diagnostic range** for most clinical applications. - Although lower frequencies offer better tissue penetration, frequencies below 2 MHz provide **insufficient spatial resolution** for standard diagnostic medical imaging.
Question 9: In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by
- A. Creatinine clearance
- B. Ultrasonography
- C. IVU
- D. DTPA renogram (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***DTPA renogram*** - A **DTPA renogram** (diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid scan) is a nuclear medicine study that assesses **renal blood flow** and **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**. - It is highly effective in determining if a kidney is non-functioning because it directly measures the **uptake and excretion of a radiotracer** by the kidney, providing quantitative data on its functional capacity. *Creatinine clearance* - **Creatinine clearance** is a measure of overall kidney function, reflecting the GFR of **both kidneys combined**. - It cannot specifically identify a non-functioning individual kidney, as the other kidney might compensate for the non-functioning one, leading to a near-normal overall creatinine clearance. *Ultrasonography* - **Ultrasonography** is excellent for evaluating **renal anatomy**, such as size, shape, and presence of cysts, hydronephrosis, or stones. - While it can show structural abnormalities, it provides limited direct information about the **functional status** of the kidney, and a structurally normal kidney can still be non-functional. *IVU (Intravenous Urography)* - **Intravenous Urography (IVU)** uses contrast dye injected intravenously to visualize the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, assessing both anatomy and some aspects of function. - If a kidney is non-functioning, it would show **no uptake or excretion of the contrast dye**, but IVU involves radiation exposure and nephrotoxic contrast, making DTPA renogram often preferred in children for functional assessment.
Question 10: Which of the following is typically seen on ultrasound in acute pyelonephritis?
- A. Decreased vascularity
- B. Enlarged kidney with diffuse swelling (Correct Answer)
- C. Localized hypoechogenic areas in the kidney
- D. Fluid collection around the kidney
Explanation: ***Enlarged kidney with diffuse swelling*** - In **acute pyelonephritis**, the **most consistent ultrasound finding** is **renal enlargement** with **diffuse swelling** of the affected kidney. - This occurs due to **inflammatory edema** and increased fluid content within the renal parenchyma, representing the body's inflammatory response to infection. - **Diffuse enlargement** is present in the majority of cases and is often the **earliest sonographic manifestation**, making it the most typical finding. *Localized hypoechogenic areas in the kidney* - **Focal or multifocal hypoechoic areas** are indeed **highly characteristic** of acute pyelonephritis and represent zones of **parenchymal edema and inflammation**. - These are seen in approximately **20-80% of cases** and are considered a hallmark feature. - However, they may not be present in all cases, particularly in early or mild disease, whereas **renal enlargement is more consistently present**. - When visible, these areas have high specificity for the diagnosis. *Fluid collection around the kidney* - **Perinephric fluid collections** or abscesses indicate **complicated pyelonephritis** with extension of infection beyond the renal capsule. - These are **not typical findings in uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis** and suggest more severe or advanced infection requiring aggressive management. *Decreased vascularity* - Acute pyelonephritis typically shows **increased vascularity** on color Doppler due to **hyperemia and inflammatory vasodilation**. - **Decreased vascularity** is associated with **renal infarction**, severe ischemia, or chronic scarring—not acute bacterial infection.
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