Cross-sectional Anatomy: Neck — MCQs

10 questions

A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:-

A resident at the emergency department is preparing for a lumbar puncture in a 26 years old female with suspected subarachnoid bleeding. Although she presented with altered sensorium, CT brain was found to be normal. During LP, which structure is pierced after the spinal needle crosses interspinous ligament?

All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except?

Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?

A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?

Retropharyngeal space extends up to which of the following levels?

Lymph node metastasis in neck is almost never seen with:

Caldwell’s view is used for:

Which type of study determines the odds ratio?

Q10

Identify the structure shown in CT abdomen section. (Recent NEET Pattern 2018-19)

Cross-sectional Anatomy: Neck Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:-

A. Retropharyngeal abscess
B. Parapharyngeal abscess
C. Tonsillitis
D. Quinsy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Quinsy (Peritonsillar abscess)*** - **Quinsy** is a **peritonsillar abscess** that presents with fever, severe throat pain, and the pathognomonic sign of **unilateral tonsil pushed toward the midline**. - The abscess forms in the **peritonsillar space** (between the tonsillar capsule and superior constrictor muscle), causing **medial displacement of the tonsil** and **bulging of the soft palate**. - Patients typically have **trismus, dysphagia, "hot potato voice"** and may have visible neck swelling. - This clinical presentation exactly matches the description: tonsil pushed to midline is the **classic finding for peritonsillar abscess**. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** involves the deep parapharyngeal space lateral to the pharynx. - While it can cause neck swelling and fever, it typically causes **fullness and induration of the lateral pharyngeal wall** rather than prominent medial displacement of the tonsil itself. - The **tonsil is usually NOT pushed to the midline** in parapharyngeal abscess; instead, there is lateral pharyngeal wall bulging. - Often presents with more prominent external neck swelling below the angle of mandible. *Retropharyngeal abscess* - A **retropharyngeal abscess** occurs in the retropharyngeal space behind the posterior pharyngeal wall. - Presents with **posterior pharyngeal wall bulge**, neck stiffness, and dysphagia. - Does **NOT cause medial displacement of the tonsil** as the abscess is posterior, not lateral to the tonsil. *Tonsillitis* - **Acute tonsillitis** causes bilateral tonsillar inflammation with erythema and exudates. - While both tonsils may be enlarged, there is **no unilateral medial displacement** of one tonsil. - Less likely to cause significant neck swelling compared to deep space infections.

Question 2: A resident at the emergency department is preparing for a lumbar puncture in a 26 years old female with suspected subarachnoid bleeding. Although she presented with altered sensorium, CT brain was found to be normal. During LP, which structure is pierced after the spinal needle crosses interspinous ligament?

A. Supra/inter spinous ligament
B. Skin
C. Sub cutaneous fascia
D. Dura mater
E. Arachnoid mater
F. Ligamentum flava (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The enriched explanation is the original text provided because none of the references were sufficiently relevant to the anatomy of a lumbar puncture. Ligamentum flava - After passing the interspinous ligament, the next significant structure pierced by the spinal needle during a lumbar puncture is the ligamentum flava. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the vertebral column and is located anterior to the interspinous ligament, connecting the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. *Supra/inter spinous ligament* - The question explicitly states that the needle has already crossed the interspinous ligament, making this an incorrect choice for the next structure. - The supraspinous ligament lies superficial to the interspinous ligament, both of which are encountered before the ligamentum flava. *Skin* - The skin is the very first layer pierced when performing a lumbar puncture. - The question is asking what is pierced after the interspinous ligament, not what is pierced first. *Sub cutaneous fascia* - The subcutaneous fascia is located directly beneath the skin and is encountered very early in the lumbar puncture procedure. - It lies superficial to all ligaments of the vertebral column, including the interspinous ligament. *Dura mater* - The dura mater is pierced after the ligamentum flava. - It is the outermost meningeal layer, which, once penetrated, indicates entry into the epidural space, followed by the subarachnoid space. *Arachnoid mater* - The arachnoid mater is a thin, delicate membrane that lies immediately deep to the dura mater. - It is pierced almost simultaneously with the dura mater, and its penetration allows entry into the subarachnoid space where CSF is collected. *Return of CSF* - The return of CSF is the result of successfully traversing all necessary layers and entering the subarachnoid space. - It is not an anatomical structure that is pierced itself, but rather the clinical endpoint of the procedure.

Question 3: All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except?

A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Transverse cervical artery (Correct Answer)
C. Ascending pharyngeal artery
D. Superficial temporal artery

Explanation: ***Transverse cervical artery*** - The **transverse cervical artery** is a branch of the **thyrocervical trunk**, which itself originates from the **subclavian artery**, not the external carotid artery. - It supplies muscles in the neck and shoulder region. *Superior thyroid artery* - The **superior thyroid artery** is typically the first branch of the **external carotid artery**. - It supplies the **thyroid gland** and adjacent structures in the neck. *Ascending pharyngeal artery* - The **ascending pharyngeal artery** is the only **medial branch** of the **external carotid artery**. - It supplies the **pharynx**, prevertebral muscles, and middle ear. *Superficial temporal artery* - The **superficial temporal artery** is one of the **two terminal branches** of the **external carotid artery**, forming in the parotid gland. - It supplies the scalp in the temporal region and is palpable anterior to the ear.

Question 4: Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?

A. I-IV
B. I-V (Correct Answer)
C. I-III
D. II-VI

Explanation: ***I-V*** - A modified radical neck dissection typically removes lymph nodes from levels **I through V**, along with preservation of one or more non-lymphatic structures (sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, or spinal accessory nerve). - This extensive dissection addresses potential metastasis to these node groups from head and neck cancers, crucial for adequate oncologic clearance while aiming for functional preservation. *I-III* - This limited dissection would likely be insufficient for many head and neck cancers, as spread often extends beyond level III. - It would miss potential metastases in the lower jugular and posterior triangle nodes, increasing the risk of recurrence. *I-IV* - This dissection omits **level V**, which includes the posterior triangle nodes, a common site for metastatic spread, especially for cancers of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. - Excluding level V would be considered an incomplete radical or modified radical neck dissection in many clinical scenarios. *II-VI* - This option incorrectly excludes lymph nodes at **level I** (submental and submandibular nodes), which are critical draining sites for many oral cavity cancers. - Including level VI (anterior compartment nodes) is typically part of a central compartment neck dissection, often performed for thyroid cancer, but is usually not part of a standard modified radical neck dissection for other head and neck primaries unless specifically indicated.

Question 5: A 26-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with a discrete thyroid swelling. On neck ultrasound, an isolated cystic swelling of the gland is seen. What is the risk of malignancy associated with this finding?

A. 48%
B. 12%
C. 24%
D. 3% (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***3%*** - **Purely cystic thyroid nodules** (as described in this case with "isolated cystic swelling") have a **very low risk of malignancy**, typically **2-3%** or less. - According to **ATA guidelines** and **TIRADS classification**, purely cystic nodules are considered **low suspicion** lesions. - The cystic nature suggests a **benign process** such as a degenerated adenoma, colloid cyst, or simple cyst. - **Fine needle aspiration (FNA)** may still be considered if the nodule is >2 cm or has any suspicious solid components, but is often not required for purely cystic lesions. *48%* - This percentage is **significantly higher** than the actual malignancy risk for a purely cystic thyroid swelling. - Such a **high risk** would typically be associated with **solid nodules** exhibiting highly suspicious ultrasound features such as: - Microcalcifications - Irregular or spiculated margins - Taller-than-wide shape - Marked hypoechogenicity - Extrathyroidal extension *24%* - This percentage represents a **moderate to high risk** of malignancy, which is **not characteristic** of an isolated purely cystic thyroid swelling. - A risk in this range might be seen with: - **Mixed solid-cystic nodules** with predominantly solid components - Solid nodules with **intermediate suspicious features** on ultrasound *12%* - While lower than 24% or 48%, 12% is still **considerably higher** than the generally accepted malignancy risk for purely cystic thyroid nodules. - This risk level could be plausible for: - **Predominantly cystic nodules** with some eccentric solid components - Solid nodules with **mildly suspicious** features on ultrasound

Question 6: Retropharyngeal space extends up to which of the following levels?

A. Base of skull to C6 vertebra
B. Base of skull to bifurcation of trachea (Correct Answer)
C. Base of skull to the level of diaphragm
D. Base of skull to cricoid cartilage

Explanation: ***Base of skull to bifurcation of trachea*** - The **retropharyngeal space** extends superiorly from the **base of the skull**. - Inferiorly, it reaches the level of the **bifurcation of the trachea (T4-T5 vertebral levels)**, where the alar fascia fuses with the visceral fascia. *Base of skull to C6 vertebra* - This description is too restrictive; the retropharyngeal space extends beyond the **C6 vertebra**. - While significant structures are at C6 (e.g., cricoid cartilage), it is not the inferior limit of this space. *Base of skull to the level of diaphragm* - This is an overestimation of the extent of the **retropharyngeal space**. - The space terminates well above the **diaphragm**, near the tracheal bifurcation. *Base of skull to cricoid cartilage* - The **cricoid cartilage** is located at the level of **C6**, which is an insufficient inferior limit for the **retropharyngeal space**. - The space descends further into the mediastinum.

Question 7: Lymph node metastasis in neck is almost never seen with:

A. Carcinoma vocal cords (Correct Answer)
B. Supraglottic carcinoma
C. Carcinoma of tonsil
D. Papillary carcinoma thyroid

Explanation: ***Carcinoma vocal cords*** - The **vocal cords** are relatively poor in lymphatic drainage, which significantly reduces the likelihood of regional lymph node metastasis. - Due to this sparse lymphatic network, spread to cervical lymph nodes is rare, especially in early-stage disease. *Supraglottic carcinoma* - **Supraglottic** regions have a rich lymphatic network, leading to a high incidence of cervical lymph node metastasis, even in early stages. - Bilateral lymphatic drainage further increases the risk of nodal involvement. *Carcinoma of tonsil* - The **tonsils** are richly supplied with lymphatic vessels, making them prone to early and frequent metastasis to cervical lymph nodes. - Metastasis is often seen in levels II, III, and IV of the neck. *Papillary carcinoma thyroid* - **Papillary thyroid carcinoma** commonly metastasizes to regional lymph nodes, with documented rates as high as 30-80%. - Nodal metastasis can occur in the central compartment (level VI) and lateral neck (levels II-V).

Question 8: Caldwell’s view is used for:

A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus (Correct Answer)
C. Ethmoidal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus

Explanation: ***Frontal sinus*** - The Caldwell view is a **posteroanterior (PA) radiographic projection** of the skull, specifically designed to visualize the **frontal sinuses** and anterior ethmoid air cells. - In this view, the X-ray beam is angled at 15-20 degrees caudally to the orbitomeatal line, allowing for good visualization of the frontal sinuses above the orbital structures. *Maxillary sinus* - The **Waters view (occipitomental view)** is primarily used for optimal visualization of the **maxillary sinuses**, providing a clear view free from superimposition of the petrous ridges. - While portions of the maxillary sinuses may be visible on a Caldwell view, it is not the primary or best projection for them. *Ethmoidal sinus* - The Caldwell view offers some visualization of the **anterior ethmoidal air cells**, but the **posterior ethmoidal air cells** are better seen on other views like the **lateral view** or specialized CT scans. - The **lateral view** provides a good overall view of all paranasal sinuses, including the ethmoid, but not with the specific clarity for the anterior ethmoids that Caldwell provides. *Sphenoid sinus* - The **sphenoid sinus** is best visualized on **lateral skull radiographs** or **submentovertex (base) view**, where it can be seen centrally located posterior to the nasal cavity. - The Caldwell view does not provide adequate visualization of the sphenoid sinus due to superimposition of other structures and the anatomical position of the sphenoid sinus deep in the skull base.

Question 9: Which type of study determines the odds ratio?

A. Case control (Correct Answer)
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. RCT

Explanation: ***Case control*** - **Case-control studies** compare individuals with a disease (cases) to individuals without the disease (controls) and look back in time to identify previous exposures. - The **odds ratio** is the primary measure of association used in case-control studies, quantifying the odds of exposure among cases versus controls. *Cohort* - **Cohort studies** follow groups of individuals over time, some exposed to a risk factor and some not, to determine the incidence of a disease. - They typically determine **relative risk**, which is the ratio of incidence rates in exposed versus unexposed groups. *Cross sectional* - **Cross-sectional studies** assess the prevalence of disease and exposure at a single point in time. - They primarily measure **prevalence** and can be used to calculate a **prevalence odds ratio**, but they do not establish temporality between exposure and outcome. *RCT* - **Randomized controlled trials (RCTs)** are interventional studies where participants are randomly assigned to an intervention or control group to determine the effectiveness of a treatment or exposure. - The main measure of effect in RCTs is often the **relative risk reduction**, **absolute risk reduction**, or **number needed to treat**, rather than the odds ratio for observational exposure.

Question 10: Identify the structure shown in CT abdomen section. (Recent NEET Pattern 2018-19)

A. Inferior vena cava
B. Portal vein (Correct Answer)
C. Splenic vein
D. Superior mesenteric vein

Explanation: ***Portal vein*** - The arrow points to a vessel receiving blood from the splenic and superior mesenteric veins, which is characteristic of the **portal vein** entering the **liver parenchyma**. - The portal vein is typically seen anterior to the **inferior vena cava** and posterior to the **common hepatic artery** at this level. *Inferior vena cava* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** is a large, retroperitoneal vessel located posterior to the liver and to the right of the aorta. - The structure indicated by the arrow is clearly within the liver substance, not in the typical position of the IVC. *Splenic vein* - The **splenic vein** runs horizontally behind the body of the pancreas and joins with the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein. - The vessel shown is within the liver, distal to the formation of the portal vein. *Superior mesenteric vein* - The **superior mesenteric vein (SMV)** typically runs vertically in the mesentery and joins the splenic vein to form the portal vein. - The indicated structure is within the liver hilum, not in the anatomical location of the SMV.

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