Neonatal Imaging — MCQs
A child with acute respiratory distress showing hyperinflation of the unilateral lung in X-ray is due to –
Which sign on chest X-ray indicates tension pneumothorax?
Best method to diagnose hydrocephalus in a fetus at 24 weeks gestation is:
Rigler's sign is suggestive of?
With reference to Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS), which of the following statements is false?
All of the following are the most commonly used ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters for estimating gestational age of the fetus, except:
A 3-month-old child presents with indrawing of the chest and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. This condition can be classified as:
A 6 month infant was brought with complaints of a failure to gain weight and a large head. On examination, increased head circumference, bounding pulses and features of heart failure were noted. On cranial auscultation loud cranial bruit was heard. MRI head shows? (Recent NEET Pattern 2018-19)
A postnatal X-ray of the abdomen of a neonate shows a "double bubble sign". It is seen with:
A 28-year-old male patient presents with colicky abdominal pain along with vomiting. X-ray abdomen shows:
Neonatal Imaging Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A child with acute respiratory distress showing hyperinflation of the unilateral lung in X-ray is due to –
- A. Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
- B. Foreign body aspiration (Correct Answer)
- C. Congenital lobar emphysema
- D. Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation: ***Foreign body aspiration*** - A **foreign body** partially obstructing a bronchus acts as a **one-way valve**, allowing air to enter the lung on inspiration but trapping it on expiration, leading to **hyperinflation** of the distal lung. - This is a common cause of acute respiratory distress and unilateral lung hyperinflation in children, as they frequently aspirate small objects. *Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia* - This typically presents with **consolidation** and **infiltrates** on chest X-ray, rather than hyperinflation. - While it can cause respiratory distress, it does not characteristically lead to **unilateral hyperinflation** as its primary X-ray finding. *Congenital lobar emphysema* - This causes **progressive hyperinflation of a single lobe** (typically upper or middle lobe), not the entire lung, due to abnormal bronchial cartilage or extrinsic compression. - While it can present acutely in infancy, the X-ray shows **lobar** hyperinflation with mediastinal shift, distinct from the **whole lung** hyperinflation seen with foreign body aspiration. *Aspiration pneumonia* - Aspiration pneumonia is caused by inhaling gastric contents or other substances, leading to **inflammation and infection** of the lung parenchyma. - It typically presents with **infiltrates**, **consolidation**, or **abscess formation** on X-ray, not unilateral hyperinflation.
Question 2: Which sign on chest X-ray indicates tension pneumothorax?
- A. Mediastinal shift (Correct Answer)
- B. Flattened diaphragm
- C. Deep sulcus sign
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Mediastinal shift*** - **Mediastinal shift** away from the affected side is the **most specific and critical radiographic sign** of tension pneumothorax on chest X-ray. - The progressive air accumulation under positive pressure pushes the **mediastinum** (heart, great vessels, trachea) toward the contralateral side, causing life-threatening **cardiorespiratory compromise** by impeding venous return and cardiac output. - This finding distinguishes tension pneumothorax from simple pneumothorax and mandates **immediate needle decompression**. *Flattened diaphragm* - A **flattened or depressed hemidiaphragm** can occur in tension pneumothorax due to increased intrapleural pressure pushing the diaphragm downward. - However, this sign is **non-specific** as it also occurs in simple pneumothorax, hyperinflation, COPD, and other conditions. - While supportive, it does not definitively indicate the high-pressure tension state. *Deep sulcus sign* - The **deep sulcus sign** (abnormally deep and lucent costophrenic angle) is seen on **supine chest X-rays** when air accumulates anteriorly and inferiorly in the pleural space. - This indicates pneumothorax but is **not specific for tension pneumothorax** and can be seen in simple pneumothorax. - It is position-dependent and does not indicate mediastinal compression. *All of the options* - While flattened diaphragm and deep sulcus sign **may be present** in tension pneumothorax, only **mediastinal shift** is the **definitive radiographic indicator** that distinguishes tension from simple pneumothorax. - Mediastinal shift is the key finding that reflects the pathophysiological pressure differential causing cardiovascular compromise.
Question 3: Best method to diagnose hydrocephalus in a fetus at 24 weeks gestation is:
- A. Ultrasound (Correct Answer)
- B. X-ray
- C. CT scan
- D. MRI
Explanation: ***Ultrasound*** - **Fetal ultrasound** is the primary and most effective imaging modality for diagnosing hydrocephalus in a 6-month-old fetus due to its **safety**, accessibility, and ability to visualize the developing brain. - It allows for the measurement of **ventricular size** and observation of characteristic features of hydrocephalus, such as **ventriculomegaly** and **dangling choroid plexus**. *X-ray* - **X-rays** use ionizing radiation, which is generally avoided in pregnant women due to potential risks to the developing fetus. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissues** like the brain and would not be effective in diagnosing hydrocephalus. *CT scan* - **CT scans** also involve significant **radiation exposure**, posing risks to the fetus and limiting their use in prenatal diagnosis. - While capable of visualizing brain structures, the benefits do not outweigh the **radiation risk** when safer and equally effective alternatives like ultrasound are available. *MRI* - **Fetal MRI** can provide detailed imaging of the fetal brain but is typically reserved for **further characterization** of anomalies identified by ultrasound or when ultrasound findings are inconclusive. - It is more expensive and less readily available than ultrasound, making it a **secondary imaging tool** rather than the primary diagnostic method for initial screening.
Question 4: Rigler's sign is suggestive of?
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Pneumoperitoneum (Correct Answer)
- C. Peritonitis
- D. Hemothorax
Explanation: ***Correct: Pneumoperitoneum*** - **Rigler's sign** (double wall sign) is the visualization of both the **inner (mucosal) and outer (serosal) surfaces** of the bowel wall on an abdominal X-ray. - This occurs when **free intraperitoneal air** outlines both sides of the bowel wall, making it a **pathognomonic sign of pneumoperitoneum**. - Commonly seen in **bowel perforation** from causes like peptic ulcer, trauma, or iatrogenic injury. *Incorrect: Pneumothorax* - Refers to air in the **pleural space** (thoracic cavity), not the peritoneal cavity. - Diagnosed on chest X-ray by the **visceral pleural line** with absent lung markings peripherally. - Completely different anatomical compartment from where Rigler's sign is observed. *Incorrect: Peritonitis* - Represents **inflammation of the peritoneum**, which is a clinical and pathological diagnosis. - While pneumoperitoneum from perforation can **lead to peritonitis**, Rigler's sign specifically indicates the **presence of free air**, not inflammation itself. - Peritonitis has no specific pathognomonic radiological sign like Rigler's. *Incorrect: Hemothorax* - Refers to **blood in the pleural cavity** (thoracic, not abdominal). - Appears as a **pleural effusion** with meniscus sign on chest X-ray. - Unrelated to abdominal radiological findings or free air.
Question 5: With reference to Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS), which of the following statements is false?
- A. Leads to respiratory distress in premature infants
- B. Is less common in babies born to diabetic mothers (Correct Answer)
- C. Is treated by administering surfactant therapy
- D. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation
Explanation: ***Is less common in babies born to diabetic mothers*** - Babies born to **diabetic mothers** are at an **increased risk** of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) due to delayed lung maturation caused by **hyperinsulinemia.** - Insulin inhibits the production of **surfactant**, a substance critical for reducing surface tension in the alveoli and preventing lung collapse. - This statement is **FALSE** - RDS is actually **MORE common** in infants of diabetic mothers. *Leads to respiratory distress in premature infants* - RDS is primarily a disease of **prematurity**, resulting from a deficiency of **surfactant** in the immature lungs. - This deficiency leads to widespread **atelectasis** (lung collapse), which causes breathing difficulties immediately or shortly after birth. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Is treated by administering surfactant therapy* - **Surfactant therapy** is a cornerstone of RDS treatment, often delivered via an **endotracheal tube**. - It works by replacing the deficient natural surfactant, thereby improving **lung compliance** and reducing the work of breathing. - This statement is **TRUE**. *Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation* - RDS predominantly affects infants born **before 34 weeks of gestation**, as their lungs are typically not mature enough to produce sufficient surfactant. - The risk **decreases significantly** with increasing gestational age, with full-term infants rarely developing the condition. - This statement is **TRUE**.
Question 6: All of the following are the most commonly used ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters for estimating gestational age of the fetus, except:
- A. Biparietal diameter
- B. Head circumference
- C. Transcerebellar diameter (Correct Answer)
- D. Femur length
Explanation: ***Transcerebellar diameter*** - While it can be used for gestational age estimation, especially in cases of **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)** or during the third trimester, it is **not one of the most commonly used** or primary parameters for routine gestational age assessment in early pregnancy. - The transcerebellar diameter is less affected by **growth disturbances** compared to other parameters but is not part of the standard set of measurements. *Biparietal diameter* - This is a **primary and highly reliable parameter** for estimating gestational age, particularly in the **second trimester**. - It measures the distance between the two parietal bones of the fetal skull. *Head circumference* - **Head circumference** is another **standard and essential parameter** for estimating gestational age and assessing fetal growth. - It provides a comprehensive measurement of the fetal head. *Femur length* - **Femur length** is a **routinely used parameter** for estimating gestational age, especially from the end of the first trimester through the third trimester. - It measures the longest bone in the fetal body, the femur.
Question 7: A 3-month-old child presents with indrawing of the chest and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. This condition can be classified as:
- A. SIRS
- B. Respiratory distress (Correct Answer)
- C. Tachypnoea
- D. ARDS
Explanation: ***Respiratory distress*** - **Indrawing of the chest** is a classic sign of increased work of breathing, indicating the child is struggling to oxygenate. - A respiratory rate of **52 breaths per minute in a 3-month-old** is significantly elevated and, combined with indrawing, points to respiratory distress. - According to **WHO IMCI guidelines**, chest indrawing in a child with fast breathing is classified as **pneumonia/respiratory distress** requiring immediate treatment. *SIRS* - **Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)** criteria are typically more comprehensive and include fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, and abnormal white blood cell count. - While tachypnea is present, the other defining features of SIRS are not fully met by the information provided, nor does indrawing directly classify as SIRS. *Tachypnoea* - **Tachypnoea** refers specifically to an elevated respiratory rate, which is present (52 breaths per minute). - However, the presence of **chest indrawing** indicates more than just rapid breathing; it signifies significant respiratory effort and compromise. - The classification must capture both the elevated rate and the increased work of breathing. *ARDS* - **Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)** is a severe form of lung injury characterized by widespread inflammation, hypoxemia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging. - While respiratory distress is a feature of ARDS, the given information is insufficient to diagnose ARDS, which requires specific criteria relating to oxygenation and radiological findings.
Question 8: A 6 month infant was brought with complaints of a failure to gain weight and a large head. On examination, increased head circumference, bounding pulses and features of heart failure were noted. On cranial auscultation loud cranial bruit was heard. MRI head shows? (Recent NEET Pattern 2018-19)
- A. Vein of Galen malformation (Correct Answer)
- B. Arachnoid cyst
- C. Arnold-Chiari malformation
- D. Dandy-Walker syndrome
Explanation: ***Vein of Galen formation*** - The clinical presentation of **failure to thrive**, **macrocephaly**, **bounding pulses**, **heart failure**, and a **loud cranial bruit** in an infant is highly characteristic of a **Vein of Galen malformation (VOGM)**. The image would show a dilated vein of Galen. - VOGMs are high-flow arteriovenous malformations that can lead to significant hemodynamic stress on the heart and hydrocephalus due to obstruction of CSF pathways. *Arachnoid cyst* - While arachnoid cysts can cause **macrocephaly** and, less commonly, obstructive hydrocephalus, they generally do not present with **heart failure**, **bounding pulses**, or a **cranial bruit**. - MRI would show a CSF-filled cyst that follows CSF signal on all sequences and typically does not enhance. *Arnold-Chiari malformation* - Arnold-Chiari malformations involve downward displacement of cerebellar tonsils or vermis through the foramen magnum and are associated with hydrocephalus, but they do not typically cause **heart failure**, **bounding pulses**, or a **cranial bruit**. - Clinical features usually relate to brain stem compression or hydrocephalus, such as apnea, stridor, or feeding difficulties. *Dandy-Walker syndrome* - Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterized by hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis and cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle, often leading to **hydrocephalus** and **macrocephaly**. - However, it does not explain the **bounding pulses**, **heart failure**, or **cranial bruit** seen in this patient, which point to a vascular anomaly.
Question 9: A postnatal X-ray of the abdomen of a neonate shows a "double bubble sign". It is seen with:
- A. Duodenal atresia (Correct Answer)
- B. Ileal atresia
- C. Pyloric stenosis
- D. Esophageal atresia
Explanation: **Duodenal atresia** - The **"double bubble sign"** on an abdominal X-ray is classic for **duodenal atresia**, representing a dilated stomach and a dilated proximal duodenum separated by the pylorus. - This finding indicates a complete obstruction at the level of the duodenum, preventing the passage of gas distally. *Ileal atresia (may show distension throughout the bowel)* - In **ileal atresia**, the obstruction is further down the small bowel, leading to multiple dilated loops of bowel proximal to the atresia. - The X-ray would typically show more widespread **abdominal distension** with multiple air-fluid levels rather than the distinct double bubble. *Pyloric stenosis (typically presents with a single bubble sign)* - **Pyloric stenosis** involves narrowing of the pylorus but not an complete obstruction in the same way as duodenal atresia, leading to gastric outlet obstruction. - While it might show a **distended stomach (single bubble)**, it typically does not obstruct distally enough to create a second prominent bubble in the duodenum. *Esophageal atresia (associated with airless abdomen on X-ray)* - **Esophageal atresia** is an interruption in the continuity of the esophagus, preventing swallowed air from reaching the stomach and intestines. - An abdominal X-ray in this condition would typically show an **airless abdomen** because air cannot pass into the gastrointestinal tract.
Question 10: A 28-year-old male patient presents with colicky abdominal pain along with vomiting. X-ray abdomen shows:
- A. Pseudo-obstruction
- B. Cancer colon
- C. Small bowel obstruction (Correct Answer)
- D. Paralytic ileus
Explanation: ***Small bowel obstruction*** - The X-ray image shows multiple **dilated loops of small bowel** with **air-fluid levels** and prominent **valvulae conniventes** (herringbone pattern), which are classic signs of small bowel obstruction. - The clinical presentation of **colicky abdominal pain** and **vomiting** is highly consistent with a small bowel obstruction. *Pseudo-obstruction* - Pseudo-obstruction, or Ogilvie's syndrome, primarily affects the **large bowel**, leading to colonic dilation without a mechanical obstruction. - While it can cause abdominal pain and vomiting, the X-ray findings would typically show marked dilation of the colon rather than predominantly small bowel loops. *Cancer colon* - Colon cancer, if it causes obstruction, typically presents as a **large bowel obstruction**, with colonic dilation proximal to the tumor. - While severe cases could lead to cecal dilation and subsequent small bowel obstruction, the primary radiographic findings would focus on the colon. *Paralytic ileus* - Paralytic ileus, or adynamic ileus, involves generalized bowel dilation (both small and large bowel) due to **impaired peristalsis**, without mechanical obstruction. - Although it causes abdominal pain and vomiting, it usually presents with more continuous, less colicky pain, and the X-ray often shows gas in the colon, which is typically absent or minimal in a complete small bowel obstruction.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free