Insomnia Disorder — MCQs
A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
Which of the following statements regarding prolactin levels is true?
During polysomnography, which stage of sleep is represented by the marked areas when observing the following wave patterns? EOG (Electrooculography) EEG (Electroencephalography) EMG (Electromyography)
Drug of choice for night terrors:
All are used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis except?
Early morning awakening is a feature of -
What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
Bruxism most commonly occurs during which phase of sleep?
What is a feature of narcolepsy?
Benzodiazepines are used in the treatment of somnambulism because they?
Insomnia Disorder Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step?
- A. Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea. (Correct Answer)
- B. Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.
- C. Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.
- D. Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.
Explanation: A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. She reports severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime, which has limited her ability to exercise. On examination, she is obese, has a full appearing posterior pharynx, clear lungs, a normal heart examination, and trace bilateral edema. Her TSH is 2.0 m/L (normal). Before adding another oral agent or switching to insulin, what is the best next step? ***Arrange for a sleep study to check the patient for obstructive sleep apnea.*** - The patient's presentation with **severe fatigue**, **daytime sleepiness**, **obesity**, and a **full-appearing posterior pharynx** are highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** [1]. - OSA can lead to **insulin resistance** and worsen glycemic control, making it a critical factor to address before escalating diabetes medications. *Consider prescribing a sleep aid to help her sleep better and increase her energy to exercise during the day.* - Prescribing a sleep aid without investigating the cause of her sleep disturbances could mask a serious underlying condition like **OSA**, which requires specific treatment [1]. - While improved sleep might transiently boost energy, it would not address the **pathophysiology of OSA** or its impact on diabetes. *Assess for possible depression as a contributor to her fatigue.* - While **depression** can cause fatigue and impact exercise, her physical findings (obesity, full pharynx) and the specific symptom of **daytime sleepiness** point more strongly towards a primary sleep disorder like OSA [1]. - A definitive diagnosis of OSA would better explain the combination of her symptoms and poor glycemic control. *Educate the patient on sleep hygiene as a supportive measure to improve her overall well-being.* - **Sleep hygiene** is important for overall health, but it is unlikely to resolve severe daytime sleepiness and fatigue caused by a mechanical obstruction like in **OSA** [1]. - This intervention would be insufficient to address the potential link between her sleep disorder and uncontrolled diabetes.
Question 2: Which of the following statements regarding prolactin levels is true?
- A. Hyperthyroidism - Increased prolactin
- B. Sleep - Increased prolactin (Correct Answer)
- C. Organic seizure - normal prolactin
- D. Psychogenic seizure - Normal prolactin
Explanation: ***Sleep - Increased prolactin*** - Prolactin secretion is **pulsatile** and highest during **nocturnal sleep**, peaking around 4-5 AM. - This physiological increase occurs regardless of sleep onset and is a normal diurnal rhythm. *Hyperthyroidism - Increased prolactin* - **Hyperthyroidism** typically causes **decreased prolactin levels** due to altered dopaminergic tone and thyroid hormone effects on pituitary lactotrophs. - Conversely, **hypothyroidism**, particularly primary hypothyroidism, can lead to **increased prolactin** due to elevated TRH stimulating prolactin secretion. *Organic seizure - normal prolactin* - An **organic seizure** (e.g., tonic-clonic seizure) usually causes an **acute, significant elevation in prolactin** levels postictally. - This transient rise in prolactin can be a valuable diagnostic marker to differentiate epileptic seizures from non-epileptic events. *Psychogenic seizure - Decreased prolactin* - **Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES)** typically result in **normal or slightly decreased prolactin** levels after the event. - This is a key diagnostic differentiator from true epileptic seizures, which show postictal prolactin elevation.
Question 3: During polysomnography, which stage of sleep is represented by the marked areas when observing the following wave patterns? EOG (Electrooculography) EEG (Electroencephalography) EMG (Electromyography)
- A. REM sleep
- B. NREM I sleep (Correct Answer)
- C. NREM II sleep
- D. NREM III sleep
Explanation: ***NREM I sleep*** - This stage is characterized by a transition from wakefulness to sleep, identifiable by the appearance of **slow eye movements** in the EOG and a reduction in EEG frequency with the presence of **theta waves**. - The EMG shows a decrease in muscle tone but without the complete atonia seen in REM sleep. *REM sleep* - **Rapid eye movements** are characteristic in the EOG, and the EEG shows **low-amplitude, mixed-frequency waves** similar to wakefulness. - The EMG would display profound muscle atonia, which is not evident in the provided tracing. *NREM II sleep* - This stage is marked by the presence of **sleep spindles** and **K-complexes** in the EEG, which are absent in the marked area. - Eye movements are generally absent, and muscle activity continues to be low. *NREM III sleep* - This is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by **high-amplitude, slow-delta waves** (20-50% of the epoch) in the EEG. - Eye movements are typically absent, and muscle tone is very low but not completely absent.
Question 4: Drug of choice for night terrors:
- A. Tricyclic antidepressant
- B. Meprobamate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Clonazepam (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clonazepam*** - **Clonazepam**, a benzodiazepine, is the **drug of choice** for night terrors due to its ability to suppress Stage 3 and 4 **slow-wave sleep**, where night terrors occur. - Its sedative and anxiolytic effects help to calm the patient and reduce the frequency and severity of these episodes. *Tricyclic antidepressant* - While some **tricyclic antidepressants** (TCAs) have sedative properties, they are generally not the first-line treatment for night terrors. - Their side effect profile and potential to alter other sleep stages make them less suitable than benzodiazepines for this specific parasomnia. *Meprobamate* - **Meprobamate** is an anxiolytic and sedative drug that is largely historical and has been replaced by safer and more effective alternatives like benzodiazepines. - It has a higher risk of dependence and side effects compared to modern treatments for sleep disorders. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is another benzodiazepine, but **clonazepam** is generally preferred for night terrors due to its longer half-life and specific efficacy in suppressing slow-wave sleep. - While diazepam could offer some relief, clonazepam is considered more effective for sustained management of this condition.
Question 5: All are used in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis except?
- A. Voiding of urine before sleeping (Correct Answer)
- B. Imipramine
- C. Alarm setup
- D. Maintenance of calendar of day night wetting
Explanation: ***Voiding of urine before sleeping*** - **Voiding before sleep** is a **general hygiene measure and preventive advice** rather than a specific therapeutic intervention for nocturnal enuresis. - While it may reduce bladder volume at bedtime, it does **not address the underlying pathophysiology** of nocturnal enuresis (arousal deficit, nocturnal polyuria, or detrusor overactivity). - It is **routine advice** given to all children, not a targeted treatment modality for curing enuresis. *Imipramine* - **Imipramine**, a tricyclic antidepressant, is an established **pharmacological treatment** for nocturnal enuresis. - Its mechanisms include: **anticholinergic effects** (increasing bladder capacity and functional bladder capacity), **alpha-adrenergic effects** (increasing bladder outlet resistance), and **antidiuretic effects**. - Typical dosing: **25-50 mg at bedtime**, with success rates of 40-60%. *Alarm setup* - **Bed-wetting alarms** are the **first-line behavioral therapy** with the highest long-term cure rates (60-70% success). - Works through **classical conditioning**: the alarm triggers when moisture is detected, training the child to either wake to void or develop nocturnal bladder control. - Requires **8-12 weeks** of consistent use and has the lowest relapse rates among treatments. *Maintenance of calendar of day night wetting* - **Voiding diary/calendar** is an essential **behavioral intervention** for monitoring and managing nocturnal enuresis. - Helps identify patterns, track treatment progress, and provides **positive reinforcement** through visual feedback. - Part of comprehensive behavioral management alongside fluid restriction and scheduled voiding during daytime.
Question 6: Early morning awakening is a feature of -
- A. Mania
- B. Psychosis
- C. Anxiety neurosis
- D. Depression (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Depression*** - **Early morning awakening** (or terminal insomnia) is a classic symptom of major depressive disorder, where patients wake up several hours before their usual time and cannot return to sleep. - This symptom is often accompanied by other features like **anhedonia**, feelings of worthlessness, fatigue, and **psychomotor retardation** or agitation. *Mania* - Patients experiencing **mania** often have a significantly reduced need for sleep but do not typically report early morning awakening as a distressful symptom. - They may go days with very little sleep, feeling energetic and not tired, which differs from the insomnia associated with depression. *Psychosis* - **Psychotic disorders** can disrupt sleep patterns due to hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized thinking, leading to various sleep disturbances. - However, **early morning awakening** is not a specific or hallmark symptom of psychosis; rather, sleep architecture can be severely fragmented and irregular. *Anxiety neurosis* - **Anxiety neurosis** (now often termed generalized anxiety disorder or panic disorder) can cause sleep initiation difficulties due to racing thoughts and worries. - While anxiety can cause **insomnia**, it more commonly manifests as difficulty falling asleep or nocturnal awakenings, rather than the characteristic early morning awakening seen in depression.
Question 7: What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
- A. SSRIs (Correct Answer)
- B. Antipsychotics
- C. Benzodiazepines
- D. MAO inhibitors
Explanation: ***SSRIs*** - **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and generally favorable side effect profile. - They work by increasing the levels of **serotonin** in the brain, which helps regulate mood and anxiety symptoms. *Antipsychotics* - **Antipsychotics** are primarily used to treat psychotic disorders like schizophrenia or severe mood disorders with psychotic features, not typically as first-line for generalized anxiety disorder. - Their significant side effect profile, including metabolic disturbances and movement disorders, makes them a less desirable choice for initial treatment of anxiety. *Benzodiazepines* - While effective for acute anxiety relief, **benzodiazepines** are generally not considered first-line for long-term management of GAD due to the risk of dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms. - They are often used for short-term relief or as an adjunct in the initial phase of treatment while awaiting the therapeutic effects of SSRIs. *MAO inhibitors* - **Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)** are older antidepressants with significant drug-drug and drug-food interactions (e.g., tyramine crisis), making them usually a last-resort treatment for severe mood disorders, not generalized anxiety disorder. - Their complex dietary restrictions and side effect profile preclude their use as a first-line option.
Question 8: Bruxism most commonly occurs during which phase of sleep?
- A. REM sleep
- B. NREM Stage I
- C. NREM Stage II (Correct Answer)
- D. NREM Stage III
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Sleep Bruxism** is a sleep-related movement disorder characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth. **Why NREM Stage II is correct:** While bruxism can occur in any stage of sleep, it is most frequently observed during **NREM Stage II (Light Sleep)**. Statistically, about 80% of bruxism episodes occur during NREM sleep, with the vast majority clustered in Stage II. These episodes are often associated with "micro-arousals"—brief shifts in sleep depth where the sympathetic nervous system activity increases, leading to rhythmic masticatory muscle activity (RMMA). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **REM Sleep (A):** Although bruxism can occur during REM, it is less common. REM-related bruxism is often associated with more severe clinical symptoms and may be linked to obstructive sleep apnea. * **NREM Stage I (B):** This is a transitional phase of very light sleep. While grinding can occur here, the frequency is significantly lower than in Stage II. * **NREM Stage III (D):** Also known as Slow Wave Sleep (SWS) or deep sleep. Parasomnias like sleepwalking (somnambulism) and night terrors typically occur here, but bruxism is less frequent in this stage compared to Stage II. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Treatment of Choice:** The first-line management is usually **stress reduction** and **dental guards (occlusal splints)** to prevent tooth wear. * **Pharmacotherapy:** If severe, **Benzodiazepines** (like Clonazepam) or muscle relaxants may be used short-term. * **Association:** Bruxism is frequently associated with stress, anxiety, and other sleep disorders like Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA). * **Key Distinction:** Do not confuse bruxism (Stage II) with **Sleep Terrors/Somnambulism**, which are classic **Stage III (N3)** phenomena.
Question 9: What is a feature of narcolepsy?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Hypersomnia during the day (Correct Answer)
- C. Bruxism
- D. Somnambulism
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Narcolepsy** is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by the brain's inability to regulate sleep-wake cycles normally. The hallmark feature is **excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS)** or hypersomnia, where patients experience an irrepressible need to sleep or "sleep attacks" regardless of the amount of sleep they get at night. This occurs due to the loss of orexin (hypocretin)-producing neurons in the hypothalamus, which are responsible for maintaining wakefulness. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option B (Correct):** Hypersomnia is the primary symptom. Patients often enter REM sleep directly from wakefulness (SOREMPs), leading to refreshing but short naps. * **Option A:** Insomnia refers to difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep. While narcoleptics may have fragmented nocturnal sleep, the defining diagnostic feature is daytime hypersomnia. * **Option C:** Bruxism (teeth grinding) is a sleep-related movement disorder, not a primary feature of narcolepsy. * **Option D:** Somnambulism (sleepwalking) is a NREM parasomnia. Narcolepsy is primarily associated with REM sleep dysregulation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Classic Tetrad:** 1. Excessive Daytime Sleepiness, 2. **Cataplexy** (sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by emotions—most specific sign), 3. Sleep Paralysis, and 4. Hypnagogic/Hypnopompic hallucinations. * **Diagnosis:** Gold standard is the **Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)** showing a mean sleep latency <8 minutes and ≥2 SOREMPs. * **Treatment:** Modafinil (first-line for EDS); Sodium Oxybate (effective for both EDS and cataplexy).
Question 10: Benzodiazepines are used in the treatment of somnambulism because they?
- A. Increase the duration of NREM stages III and IV
- B. Increase the duration of REM sleep
- C. Decrease the duration of NREM stages III and IV (Correct Answer)
- D. Decrease the duration of REM sleep
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Somnambulism (Sleepwalking)** is a parasomnia that occurs during **NREM Stage N3 (Stage III and IV)**, also known as slow-wave sleep (SWS) or deep sleep. This is the stage characterized by high-arousal thresholds and rhythmic delta waves. **Why the correct answer is right:** Benzodiazepines (such as Diazepam or Alprazolam) are effective in treating somnambulism because they **suppress and decrease the duration of NREM Stage III and IV sleep**. By reducing the time a patient spends in these deep sleep stages, the physiological window in which sleepwalking occurs is minimized, thereby reducing the frequency of episodes. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Option A:** Increasing NREM Stage III and IV would theoretically increase the risk and frequency of sleepwalking episodes, as the disorder originates in these stages. * **Option B & D:** While Benzodiazepines are known to **decrease REM sleep** (Option D), this is not the primary reason they are used for somnambulism. Somnambulism is an NREM disorder; REM-related disorders include Nightmares and REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD). Therefore, the effect on NREM is the clinically relevant mechanism here. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Timing:** Sleepwalking typically occurs during the **first third** of the night (when NREM sleep is most abundant). * **Amnesia:** Patients usually have complete amnesia regarding the episode the following morning. * **Management:** The first line of management is usually **safety precautions** and sleep hygiene. Pharmacotherapy (Benzodiazepines) is reserved for refractory or dangerous cases. * **Differential:** Unlike sleepwalking, **Nightmares** occur during REM sleep, usually in the later part of the night, and the patient has vivid recall.
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