Pharmacological Approaches — MCQs
Drug most useful in the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder is
Which personality disorder is characterized by unstable interpersonal relationships and impulsive behavior?
A patient with depression was given Imipramine for 2 weeks. Relatives noticed increased excitement, colorful clothes, and increased talking. What is the next step in management?
Systemic desensitization therapy is used for
Management of a violent patient in psychiatry includes all except:
Which of the following is an antipsychotic drug?
Which of the following treatments cannot be used for management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
First agent shown to be effective in manic phase of Bipolar Disorder -
What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
A 39-year-old male patient presents with waxy flexibility, negativism and rigidity. Most probable diagnosis is?
Pharmacological Approaches Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Drug most useful in the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder is
- A. Doxepin
- B. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
- C. Dothiepin
- D. Amoxapine
Explanation: ***Fluoxetine*** - **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, which are considered first-line treatments for **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**. - SSRIs, including fluoxetine, are effective in **reducing the severity of obsessions and compulsions** by increasing serotonin levels in the brain. *Doxepin* - **Doxepin** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** that primarily blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin but also has significant anticholinergic and antihistaminic properties. - TCAs are generally **less preferred for OCD** due to their side effect profile and **SSRIs** typically showing greater efficacy. *Dothiepin* - **Dothiepin** is also a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** with similar mechanisms and side effects to doxepin. - Like other TCAs, dothiepin is **not a first-line treatment for OCD**; SSRIs are more commonly used due to better tolerability and efficacy. *Amoxapine* - **Amoxapine** is a **tetracyclic antidepressant** with properties similar to TCAs, also acting as a **norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor**. - While it has antidepressant effects, amoxapine is **not typically used for OCD** and carries a risk of inducing extrapyramidal side effects.
Question 2: Which personality disorder is characterized by unstable interpersonal relationships and impulsive behavior?
- A. Obsessive-compulsive
- B. Borderline (Correct Answer)
- C. Histrionic
- D. Schizoid
Explanation: **Borderline** - **Borderline personality disorder** is defined by a pervasive pattern of **instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects**, along with marked impulsivity. - Patients often experience intense, short-lived emotional episodes and may engage in **self-harm** or suicidal behaviors. *Obsessive-compulsive* - This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with **orderliness, perfectionism**, and mental and interpersonal control, often at the expense of flexibility and efficiency. - Individuals tend to be meticulous, rigid, and resistant to delegating tasks, but generally do not exhibit unstable relationships or impulsivity. *Histrionic* - This personality disorder involves excessive **emotionality and attention-seeking behavior**, often dramatic and theatrical. - While they seek attention in relationships, their relationships are not necessarily unstable in the impulsive and intense way seen in borderline personality disorder; rather, they are often superficial. *Schizoid* - Individuals with **schizoid personality disorder** exhibit a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. - They tend to be loners and indifferent to praise or criticism, which is contrary to the intense and unstable relationships seen in borderline personality disorder.
Question 3: A patient with depression was given Imipramine for 2 weeks. Relatives noticed increased excitement, colorful clothes, and increased talking. What is the next step in management?
- A. Continue Imipramine alone
- B. Manage with Valproate alone
- C. Discontinue Imipramine and start Valproate (Correct Answer)
- D. Antipsychotic with Imipramine continued
Explanation: ***Discontinue Imipramine and start Valproate*** - The patient's symptoms (increased excitement, colorful clothes, increased talking) after starting an antidepressant like **Imipramine** suggest a **manic switch**, indicating undiagnosed **bipolar disorder**. - **Imipramine** should be discontinued as it can exacerbate mania, and a mood stabilizer like **Valproate** is necessary to treat the manic episode. *Continue Imipramine alone* - Continuing Imipramine would likely worsen the manic symptoms, leading to increased agitation and potential harm. - Antidepressants can trigger or worsen manic episodes in individuals with underlying bipolar disorder. *Manage with Valproate alone* - While Valproate is an appropriate treatment for acute mania, simply managing with Valproate alone without discontinuing the offending antidepressant would be suboptimal. - The continued presence of Imipramine would counteract the mood-stabilizing effects of Valproate. *Antipsychotic with Imipramine continued* - Adding an antipsychotic might manage some acute manic symptoms, but continuing Imipramine would maintain the driving force behind the manic switch. - The primary action should be to remove the causative agent (Imipramine) and replace it with a mood stabilizer.
Question 4: Systemic desensitization therapy is used for
- A. Phobia (Correct Answer)
- B. Depression/Mania
- C. Organic brain syndrome
- D. Schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Phobia*** - **Systemic desensitization** is a highly effective behavioral therapy specifically designed to treat **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders**. - It involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared object or situation while teaching them **relaxation techniques** to replace the anxiety response. *Depression/Mania* - These conditions are primarily treated with a combination of **pharmacotherapy** (e.g., antidepressants, mood stabilizers) and other forms of psychotherapy like **cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)** or **interpersonal therapy**. - Systemic desensitization is not a primary or effective treatment for the core symptoms of **mood disorders**. *Organic brain syndrome* - This is a broad term referring to mental impairment caused by a **physical disease or injury affecting the brain**, such as dementia or delirium. - Treatment focuses on addressing the **underlying medical cause** and managing cognitive or behavioral symptoms, not desensitization. *Schizophrenia* - Schizophrenia is a severe mental illness characterized by **psychosis**, **disorganized thinking**, and significant functional impairment. - Treatment primarily involves **antipsychotic medications** and psychosocial interventions, rather than exposure-based therapies like systemic desensitization.
Question 5: Management of a violent patient in psychiatry includes all except:
- A. CBT (Correct Answer)
- B. Haloperidol
- C. ECT
- D. BZD
Explanation: ***CBT*** - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** is a long-term psychological intervention aimed at changing maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors. It is **not suitable for immediate management** of an acutely violent patient. - While CBT can be beneficial for aggression management in a stable patient, it requires patient cooperation, cognitive engagement, and time, which are not available during a **violent psychiatric emergency**. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is a potent typical antipsychotic frequently used in acute settings for rapid tranquilization of violent or severely agitated patients. - It is effective in reducing **psychosis-related agitation** and can be administered **intramuscularly** for quick onset of action. - Often used in combination with benzodiazepines for optimal control of acute violence. *ECT* - **Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)** may be considered in **severe, treatment-resistant cases** of violence associated with conditions like uncontrolled mania, catatonic excitement, or psychotic depression when pharmacological interventions have failed. - While not used for immediate acute management due to logistical requirements (consent, anesthesia, specialized setup), it can be an effective option for severe psychiatric conditions with persistent violence. - It works by inducing a brief controlled seizure, which can rapidly alleviate severe symptoms. *BZD* - **Benzodiazepines (BZDs)** like lorazepam or diazepam are **first-line agents** in the acute management of violent or agitated patients due to their rapid anxiolytic, sedative, and muscle relaxant properties. - They are particularly useful for **calming acute agitation** and are often combined with antipsychotics for rapid tranquilization. - Can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously for quick action in psychiatric emergencies.
Question 6: Which of the following is an antipsychotic drug?
- A. Flupenthixol (Correct Answer)
- B. Rasagiline
- C. Clobazam
- D. Divalproex
Explanation: ***Flupenthixol*** - **Flupenthixol** is a **first-generation (typical) antipsychotic** used primarily for managing **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - It acts by blocking **dopamine D2 receptors** in the brain, reducing positive symptoms like **hallucinations and delusions**. *Rasagiline* - **Rasagiline** is a **monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitor** used in the treatment of **Parkinson's disease**. - It works by preventing the breakdown of **dopamine** in the brain, thereby improving motor symptoms, and is not an antipsychotic. *Clobazam* - **Clobazam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily indicated for the treatment of **epilepsy** (specifically Lennox-Gastaut syndrome) and **anxiety**. - Its mechanism involves enhancing the effect of **GABA** in the brain, producing sedative and anticonvulsant effects, distinct from antipsychotic action. *Divalproex* - **Divalproex** is a combination product of **valproic acid** and **sodium valproate**, typically used as a **mood stabilizer** for **bipolar disorder**, an **antiepileptic**, and for **migraine prophylaxis**. - It modulates **GABAergic** transmission and sodium channels, but it is not classified as an antipsychotic drug.
Question 7: Which of the following treatments cannot be used for management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Carbamazepine (Correct Answer)
- C. Cognitive Behaviour Therapy
- D. Clomipramine
Explanation: ***Carbamazepine*** - **Carbamazepine** is an **anticonvulsant** and **mood stabilizer** primarily used for epilepsy and bipolar disorder. - It does not have established efficacy for the treatment of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)** and is a **first-line pharmacotherapy** for OCD. - SSRIs, including fluoxetine, are effective in reducing the severity of **obsessions and compulsions**. *Cognitive Behaviour Therapy* - **Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)**, specifically **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is the **gold standard psychotherapy** for OCD. - It involves gradually exposing patients to feared situations or thoughts while preventing their ritualistic responses. *Clomipramine* - **Clomipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** that has potent inhibitory effects on **serotonin reuptake**. - It is one of the **most effective medications** for OCD, often used when SSRIs are insufficient.
Question 8: First agent shown to be effective in manic phase of Bipolar Disorder -
- A. Valproate
- B. Lithium (Correct Answer)
- C. Lamotrigine
- D. Carbamazepine
Explanation: ***Lithium*** - **Lithium** was the first mood stabilizer specifically demonstrating efficacy in treating the **manic phase of bipolar disorder**, revolutionizing its management. - Its discovery in the 1940s and subsequent clinical trials established it as the **gold standard** for acute mania and maintenance therapy. *Valproate* - While effective in treating **acute mania** and bipolar depression, **valproate** was introduced later than lithium as a mood stabilizer. - It works by **enhancing GABAergic transmission** and modulating voltage-sensitive sodium channels. *Lamotrigine* - Primarily indicated for the treatment of **bipolar depression** and as a maintenance therapy to prevent depressive episodes. - It has **limited efficacy** in treating acute manic episodes. *Carbamazepine* - An **anticonvulsant** that also possesses mood-stabilizing properties, effective in some cases of acute mania and rapid cycling. - Its use in bipolar disorder followed the introduction of lithium, and it is considered a **second-line treatment**.
Question 9: What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
- A. SSRIs (Correct Answer)
- B. Antipsychotics
- C. Benzodiazepines
- D. MAO inhibitors
Explanation: ***SSRIs*** - **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and generally favorable side effect profile. - They work by increasing the levels of **serotonin** in the brain, which helps regulate mood and anxiety symptoms. *Antipsychotics* - **Antipsychotics** are primarily used to treat psychotic disorders like schizophrenia or severe mood disorders with psychotic features, not typically as first-line for generalized anxiety disorder. - Their significant side effect profile, including metabolic disturbances and movement disorders, makes them a less desirable choice for initial treatment of anxiety. *Benzodiazepines* - While effective for acute anxiety relief, **benzodiazepines** are generally not considered first-line for long-term management of GAD due to the risk of dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms. - They are often used for short-term relief or as an adjunct in the initial phase of treatment while awaiting the therapeutic effects of SSRIs. *MAO inhibitors* - **Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)** are older antidepressants with significant drug-drug and drug-food interactions (e.g., tyramine crisis), making them usually a last-resort treatment for severe mood disorders, not generalized anxiety disorder. - Their complex dietary restrictions and side effect profile preclude their use as a first-line option.
Question 10: A 39-year-old male patient presents with waxy flexibility, negativism and rigidity. Most probable diagnosis is?
- A. None of the options
- B. Stuporous catatonia (Correct Answer)
- C. Paranoid schizophrenia
- D. Excitatory catatonia
Explanation: ***Stuporous catatonia*** - **Waxy flexibility**, **negativism**, and **rigidity** are classic symptoms of catatonia, specifically indicating the stuporous presentation where there is a marked decrease in reactivity to the environment. - In this subtype, the patient often exhibits features such as **immobility**, mutism, and fixed postures, alongside the mentioned symptoms. *Excitatory catatonia* - Characterized by **psychomotor agitation**, restlessness, and sometimes violent behavior, which is contrary to the reduced reactivity seen in the patient. - Patients with excitatory catatonia may present with **purposeless motor activity** and impulsivity, along with other catatonic features. *Paranoid schizophrenia* - Primarily defined by prominent **delusions of persecution** or grandeur and **auditory hallucinations**. - While catatonic features can sometimes occur in schizophrenia, they are not the hallmark symptoms; the described features are more directly indicative of catatonia itself. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the constellation of symptoms (waxy flexibility, negativism, rigidity) clearly points to a specific and well-recognized clinical syndrome, which is stuporous catatonia. - The symptoms provided are classic for a recognized psychiatric condition, making an "all of the above" or "none of the above" option unlikely if a specific diagnosis fits perfectly.
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