Treatment-Resistant Depression — MCQs
A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
Which of the following diseases has the maximum Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY) loss?
What is a contraindication for ECT?
Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
Indications for ECT are all except?
Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis shows resistance to which of the following drugs?
A 25-year-old male presents with purulent urethral discharge and dysuria for 3 days. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate empirical treatment regimen according to current CDC guidelines?
What is the treatment of choice for a gonococcal infection that is resistant to penicillin?
Treatment-Resistant Depression Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- B. Normal grief reaction
- C. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
- D. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder*** - The duration of symptoms (5 months) and severity, including **suicidal ideation** and significant occupational impairment, exceed what is typically expected for **normal grief** or **adjustment disorder**. - Symptoms like **sadness**, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, **poor sleep**, and poor appetite are classic for **major depressive disorder**, especially when persistent and functionally debilitating. *Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)* - While experiencing a traumatic event (witnessing his son's death) is a prerequisite for PTSD, the patient's primary symptoms are **depressive** rather than the characteristic re-experiencing, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, or hyperarousal associated with PTSD. - There is no mention of **flashbacks**, nightmares, or significant **avoidance behaviors** directly linked to the trauma beyond general withdrawal. *Normal grief reaction* - While grief is expected after the death of a child, the severity (suicidal ideation) and significant functional impairment (not attending work for 5 months) suggest a reaction beyond **normal grief**. - **Normal grief** typically doesn't involve persistent, severe functional impairment or recurrent suicidal thoughts over such a prolonged period without additional significant depressive symptoms. *Adjustment disorder with depressed mood* - **Adjustment disorder** usually resolves within 6 months of the stressor or its consequences ceasing, and symptoms are generally less severe than those seen in major depression. - The presence of **suicidal ideation** and profound, persistent functional impairment for 5 months makes **major depressive disorder** a more fitting diagnosis.
Question 2: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Diazepam
- D. Lithium carbonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.
Question 3: An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. ECT (Correct Answer)
- C. Mirtazapine
- D. Clozapine
Explanation: ***ECT*** - **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is the **treatment of choice** for severe depression with **suicidal ideation** due to its rapid onset of action and high efficacy. - It is particularly indicated when there is an urgent need for symptom remission to prevent self-harm, as verbal therapies and medications take longer to exert their full effects. *Olanzapine* - **Olanzapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** with some antidepressant properties, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe depression with suicidal tendencies. - It is often used as an **adjunctive treatment** in treatment-resistant depression or in psychotic depression with delusions. *Mirtazapine* - **Mirtazapine** is an **antidepressant** that can be very effective in cases of major depressive disorder, especially when insomnia and appetite loss are prominent. - However, its onset of action is not as rapid as ECT, making it less suitable for situations requiring immediate intervention for **severe suicidal risk**. *Clozapine* - **Clozapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** primarily used for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and reducing suicidal behavior in schizophrenia. - It is highly effective but has significant side effects, including **agranulocytosis**, and is not a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder with suicidal tendencies.
Question 4: Which of the following diseases has the maximum Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY) loss?
- A. Schizophrenia (Mental Disorder)
- B. Bipolar depression (Bipolar Disorder)
- C. Mania (Bipolar Disorder Episode)
- D. Unipolar depression (Major Depressive Disorder) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unipolar depression (Major Depressive Disorder)*** - **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)** is considered a leading cause of **disability worldwide**, contributing significantly to DALYs due to its high prevalence, chronicity, and disabling nature. - The long-term impact on daily functioning, productivity, and overall quality of life makes it the mental disorder with the largest burden of disease. *Schizophrenia (Mental Disorder)* - While **schizophrenia** causes severe disability and is highly impactful on individuals and society, its prevalence is lower than that of unipolar depression. - The DALY burden for schizophrenia is substantial, but **unipolar depression** affects a much larger proportion of the global population. *Bipolar depression (Bipolar Disorder)* - **Bipolar disorder (depressive episodes)** also contributes significantly to disability, but it is less prevalent than unipolar depression. - Although the depressive phases are often more severe than unipolar depression, the overall DALYs are lower due to its **comparatively lower incidence**. *Mania (Bipolar Disorder Episode)* - **Mania**, a component of bipolar disorder, can cause significant impairment during an episode but is typically **episodic** and less frequent than depressive states in bipolar disorder. - The DALYs attributed to manic episodes alone are generally lower than the overall burden of persistent depressive states found in unipolar depression.
Question 5: What is a contraindication for ECT?
- A. Epilepsy
- B. HIV
- C. Cerebral aneurysm (Correct Answer)
- D. Arrhythmia
Explanation: ***Cerebral aneurysm*** * A **cerebral aneurysm** is considered a **relative contraindication** for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) due to the increased risk of rupture from the transient, but significant, rise in **blood pressure** and **intracranial pressure** during the procedure. * The cardiovascular stress induced by the seizure can worsen pre-existing vascular pathologies in the brain, making it a high-risk condition. *Arrhythmia* * While various cardiac conditions require careful monitoring during ECT, **arrhythmias** are generally not an absolute contraindication. * Patients can often undergo ECT with proper **cardiac monitoring** and **pharmacological management** to control the heart rhythm during the procedure. *Epilepsy* * **Epilepsy** is not a contraindication for ECT; in fact, ECT *artificially induces a seizure* to achieve therapeutic effects. * The presence of epilepsy primarily impacts the choice of **anticonvulsant medications** and the need for potentially higher seizure thresholds, but it does not preclude ECT. *HIV* * **HIV infection** itself is not a contraindication for ECT. * ECT can be safely administered to HIV-positive individuals, with consideration given to the patient's overall **physical health**, **medication interactions**, and any co-morbid opportunistic infections.
Question 6: Match the following drugs in Column A with their contraindications in Column B. | Column A | Column B | | :-- | :-- | | 1. Morphine | 1. QT prolongation | | 2. Amiodarone | 2. Thromboembolism | | 3. Vigabatrin | 3. Pregnancy | | 4. Estrogen preparations | 4. Head injury |
- A. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
- B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation: ***A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2*** - **Morphine** is contraindicated in **head injury** as it can increase intracranial pressure and mask neurological symptoms. - **Amiodarone** is contraindicated in patients with **QT prolongation** due to its risk of inducing more severe arrhythmias like Torsades de Pointes. - **Vigabatrin** is contraindicated during **pregnancy** due to its potential for teratogenicity and adverse effects on fetal development. - **Estrogen preparations** are contraindicated in patients with a history of **thromboembolism** due to their increased risk of blood clot formation. *A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with head injury, which are not their primary contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with pregnancy. *A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1* - This choice incorrectly associates **Morphine** with pregnancy and **Vigabatrin** with head injury, which are not the most critical or direct contraindications. - It also misaligns **Amiodarone** with thromboembolism and **Estrogen preparations** with QT prolongation. *A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3* - This option incorrectly matches **Morphine** with thromboembolism and **Amiodarone** with head injury, which are not their most significant contraindications. - It also incorrectly links **Vigabatrin** with QT prolongation and **Estrogen preparations** with pregnancy.
Question 7: Indications for ECT are all except?
- A. Severe psychosis
- B. Catatonic schizophrenia
- C. Severe manic attack (Correct Answer)
- D. Severe depression with suicidal risk
Explanation: ***Severe manic attack*** - While **severe mania IS a recognized indication for ECT**, it is generally considered **less commonly used as first-line therapy** compared to the other options listed. - In clinical practice, **acute severe mania** is typically managed initially with **antipsychotics and mood stabilizers** (lithium, valproate), with ECT reserved for **treatment-resistant cases** or when rapid response is critical. - ECT is highly effective for severe mania, particularly with **psychotic features** or **medication intolerance**, but is not the **most typical first-choice indication** compared to severe depression or catatonia. - This question reflects the **relative clinical priority** of ECT indications rather than absolute contraindication. *Severe depression with suicidal risk* - This is the **most common and well-established indication for ECT**. - ECT provides **rapid antidepressant effect** (often within 1-2 weeks) and is particularly indicated when there is **imminent suicide risk**, **psychotic depression**, or **treatment-resistant depression**. - Response rates exceed 70-90% in severe depression, making it a primary indication. *Catatonic schizophrenia* - **Catatonia is one of the strongest indications for ECT**, regardless of underlying etiology (schizophrenia, mood disorders, or medical conditions). - ECT rapidly resolves **catatonic symptoms** including mutism, stupor, posturing, and waxy flexibility. - Often considered **first-line treatment** for severe or malignant catatonia due to life-threatening complications. *Severe psychosis* - ECT is indicated for **severe psychotic disorders** that are **treatment-resistant** or when patients cannot tolerate antipsychotic medications. - Particularly effective in **acute psychotic agitation**, **treatment-refractory schizophrenia**, and psychosis with high risk of harm. - Provides rapid symptom control when pharmacotherapy has failed or is contraindicated.
Question 8: Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis shows resistance to which of the following drugs?
- A. Isoniazid, rifampicin, and fluoroquinolone
- B. Fluoroquinolone
- C. Isoniazid, rifampicin, and kanamycin
- D. Isoniazid and rifampicin only (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Isoniazid and rifampicin only*** - **Multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis** is specifically defined by resistance to both **isoniazid** and **rifampicin**. - These two drugs are considered the most effective first-line anti-TB medications, making resistance to both a significant treatment challenge. *Isoniazid, rifampicin, and fluoroquinolone* - Resistance to **isoniazid**, **rifampicin**, and *any* fluoroquinolone defines **pre-extensively drug-resistant (pre-XDR) TB**, not MDR-TB. - Adding resistance to a fluoroquinolone indicates a more severe and harder-to-treat form of tuberculosis. *Fluoroquinolone* - Resistance to **fluoroquinolone** alone does not define MDR-TB; it is only one component of resistance that, when combined with resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin, signifies pre-XDR or XDR-TB. - While fluoroquinolones are important second-line drugs, their resistance in isolation does not meet the criteria for MDR-TB. *Isoniazid, rifampicin, and kanamycin* - Resistance to **isoniazid**, **rifampicin**, and *any* second-line injectable agent (like **kanamycin**, capreomycin, or amikacin) defines **extensively drug-resistant (XDR) TB**, not MDR-TB. - XDR-TB represents an even more complex and difficult form of the disease to treat, requiring highly specialized regimens.
Question 9: A 25-year-old male presents with purulent urethral discharge and dysuria for 3 days. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the most appropriate empirical treatment regimen according to current CDC guidelines?
- A. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose + Azithromycin 1g oral single dose (Correct Answer)
- B. Azithromycin 2g oral single dose
- C. Doxycycline 100mg oral twice daily for 7 days
- D. Ceftriaxone 1g IM single dose
Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose + Azithromycin 1g oral single dose*** - This regimen is the recommended empirical treatment for **uncomplicated gonococcal infections** according to current CDC guidelines, covering both *N. gonorrhoeae* and potential co-infection with *C. trachomatis*. [1] - The **intracellular gram-negative diplococci** on Gram stain are highly suggestive of **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**, and the addition of azithromycin addresses potential **chlamydial co-infection**. [1] *Azithromycin 2g oral single dose* - While azithromycin is used to treat **Chlamydia**, a 2g dose alone as monotherapy is not recommended for suspected gonococcal urethritis due to increased **resistance concerns** and lack of optimal efficacy against *N. gonorrhoeae*. - This regimen would not adequately cover **gonorrhea**, especially given the evidence of gram-negative diplococci. *Doxycycline 100mg oral twice daily for 7 days* - Doxycycline is the primary treatment for **chlamydial infections**, but it is **not effective** as monotherapy for **gonorrhea**. - Using doxycycline alone for suspected gonococcal urethritis would result in **treatment failure** for the likely gonococcal infection. *Ceftriaxone 1g IM single dose* - **Ceftriaxone** is the cornerstone of gonorrhea treatment, but the recommended dose for uncomplicated infection is **500mg IM**. [1] A 1g dose is typically reserved for severe or disseminated cases. - More importantly, **monotherapy with ceftriaxone** is generally not recommended due to the high prevalence of **chlamydial co-infection**, which would not be treated with ceftriaxone alone.
Question 10: What is the treatment of choice for a gonococcal infection that is resistant to penicillin?
- A. Penicillin
- B. Ceftazidime
- C. Ceftriaxone (Correct Answer)
- D. Spectinomycin
Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone*** - **Ceftriaxone** is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated gonococcal infections, especially given increasing resistance to other antibiotics like penicillin. - It is a **third-generation cephalosporin** that targets the bacterial cell wall synthesis effectively. *Penicillin* - **Penicillin** is no longer the recommended treatment for gonorrhea due to widespread resistance, primarily mediated by **beta-lactamase production** by *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. - Treating with penicillin when resistance is present would lead to treatment failure and continued transmission. *Ceftazidime* - **Ceftazidime** is a third-generation cephalosporin with activity against gram-negative organisms. - However, its activity against *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is not considered first-line or superior to ceftriaxone, which has better pharmacokinetic properties for treating gonorrhea. *Spectinomycin* - **Spectinomycin** is an alternative treatment for gonococcal infections, particularly in individuals with severe allergy to cephalosporins or in regions where ceftriaxone resistance is emerging. - However, it is not the treatment of choice in regions where ceftriaxone is effective and available.
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