Suicide and Suicidal Behavior — MCQs
Which of the following is NOT a core component of the WHO's global STI control strategy?
In an accident case, after the arrival of medical team, all should be done in early management except;
An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
Which of the following patients has the highest suicide risk?
A young person presents with self-mutilating behaviour and impulsivity. What are they most likely suffering from?
Which section of the Indian Penal Code addresses dowry death?
A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
A 72 year old lady is severely depressed. For the past 2 days she has suicidal thoughts with an actual intent to die. Which of the following is best suitable to alleviate the symptoms?
Among which of the following conditions is suicide risk highest?
Police inquest is NOT required in:
Suicide and Suicidal Behavior Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a core component of the WHO's global STI control strategy?
- A. Case management
- B. Universal mandatory screening (Correct Answer)
- C. Strategic information systems
- D. Prevention services
Explanation: ***Universal mandatory screening*** - While screening is part of STI control, **universal mandatory screening** for all STIs in the general population is not a core component of the WHO's strategy due to feasibility, cost, and ethical considerations. - The strategy emphasizes **targeted screening** for at-risk populations and opportunistic screening. *Case management* - **Case management**, including accurate diagnosis and effective treatment, is a critical component for managing current infections and preventing further transmission. - This involves syndromic or etiologic approaches to treatment and partner notification. *Strategic information systems* - **Strategic information systems** are essential for monitoring trends, evaluating interventions, and informing policy decisions related to STI control. - This includes surveillance data, program monitoring, and research. *Prevention services* - **Prevention services** are a cornerstone of the WHO's strategy, aiming to reduce the incidence of new infections. - These services encompass health education, condom promotion and distribution, vaccination, and pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP).
Question 2: In an accident case, after the arrival of medical team, all should be done in early management except;
- A. Glasgow coma scale
- B. Check BP (Correct Answer)
- C. Stabilization of cervical vertebrae
- D. Check Respiration
Explanation: ***Check BP*** - In the **immediate/early management** of trauma (primary survey), while circulation assessment is crucial, the **initial assessment of circulation** focuses on: - **Pulse rate and quality** (radial, carotid) - **Capillary refill time** - **Skin color and temperature** - **Active hemorrhage control** - **Formal blood pressure measurement** with a cuff, while important, is typically recorded during or after these rapid initial assessments, as it takes more time to obtain an accurate reading. - In the context of this question, among the four options listed, BP measurement is relatively less immediate compared to the other life-saving priorities (airway protection, breathing assessment, C-spine stabilization, and GCS). - **Note:** This is a nuanced distinction - BP is assessed during primary survey, but the other three options have more immediate life-threatening implications if not addressed. *Glasgow coma scale* - **GCS assessment** is part of the **"D" (Disability)** step in the ATLS primary survey. - It is performed early to assess neurological status and level of consciousness. - GCS <8 indicates need for **definitive airway protection** (intubation). - This is a critical early assessment that guides immediate management decisions. *Stabilization of cervical vertebrae* - **C-spine immobilization** is part of the **"A" (Airway)** step - "Airway with cervical spine protection." - It is performed **simultaneously** with airway assessment using a **rigid cervical collar**. - This is the **first priority** in trauma management to prevent secondary spinal cord injury. - All trauma patients should be assumed to have C-spine injury until proven otherwise. *Check Respiration* - **Respiratory assessment** is part of the **"B" (Breathing)** step in the ATLS primary survey. - This involves checking: - **Respiratory rate and pattern** - **Chest wall movement** - **Air entry bilaterally** - **Signs of tension pneumothorax or flail chest** - This is an immediate life-saving priority and must be assessed early.
Question 3: An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. ECT (Correct Answer)
- C. Mirtazapine
- D. Clozapine
Explanation: ***ECT*** - **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is the **treatment of choice** for severe depression with **suicidal ideation** due to its rapid onset of action and high efficacy. - It is particularly indicated when there is an urgent need for symptom remission to prevent self-harm, as verbal therapies and medications take longer to exert their full effects. *Olanzapine* - **Olanzapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** with some antidepressant properties, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe depression with suicidal tendencies. - It is often used as an **adjunctive treatment** in treatment-resistant depression or in psychotic depression with delusions. *Mirtazapine* - **Mirtazapine** is an **antidepressant** that can be very effective in cases of major depressive disorder, especially when insomnia and appetite loss are prominent. - However, its onset of action is not as rapid as ECT, making it less suitable for situations requiring immediate intervention for **severe suicidal risk**. *Clozapine* - **Clozapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** primarily used for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and reducing suicidal behavior in schizophrenia. - It is highly effective but has significant side effects, including **agranulocytosis**, and is not a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder with suicidal tendencies.
Question 4: Which of the following patients has the highest suicide risk?
- A. A 42 year old female, who lives with family
- B. A 42 year old female, who is single and lives alone
- C. A 22 year old male, who is single
- D. A 60 year old male who recently lost his wife and lives alone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***A 60-year-old male who recently lost his wife and lives alone.*** - **Older age**, male gender, **recent loss or bereavement**, and social isolation are all significant risk factors for suicide. - The combination of these factors places this patient at a particularly high risk compared to the others. *A 42 year old female, who lives with family* - Being female and having social support through living with family are generally considered **protective factors** against suicide. - While depression can affect anyone, this demographic profile does not present the highest risk compared to other options. *A 42 year old female, who is single and lives alone* - While living alone and being single can increase feelings of isolation, being female typically presents a **lower completed suicide risk** than being male. - This patient lacks the additional significant risk factors like recent bereavement or advanced age seen in the highest-risk option. *A 22 year old male, who is single* - Although males have a higher completed suicide rate than females, the **younger age** and lack of additional specific stressors (like recent loss or chronic illness) make his risk lower than the older male with significant bereavement. - Suicide risk is elevated in young adults but peaks at older ages, especially in the context of additional risk factors.
Question 5: A young person presents with self-mutilating behaviour and impulsivity. What are they most likely suffering from?
- A. Dependent personality disorder
- B. Adjustment disorder
- C. Borderline personality disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation: ***Borderline personality disorder*** - **Self-mutilating behavior** (e.g., cutting) and **impulsivity** are hallmark features of borderline personality disorder. - Individuals with BPD often experience intense emotional dysregulation, unstable relationships, and a fear of abandonment, leading to these behaviors. *Dependent personality disorder* - Characterized by an excessive need to be cared for, leading to submissive and clinging behavior, and fears of separation. - While it can involve unstable relationships due to dependency, it typically does not manifest with recurrent **self-mutilating behaviors** or significant **impulsivity** as core features. *Adjustment disorder* - This disorder is a short-term, stress-related condition that occurs in response to a specific **identifiable stressor**. - While individuals might exhibit behavioral symptoms, it is by definition time-limited and reactive to an external event, and **self-mutilating behavior** and chronic **impulsivity** are not primary diagnostic criteria. *Paranoid personality disorder* - Defined by a pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent. - This disorder is primarily characterized by paranoid ideation and guardedness, rather than the intrinsic **impulsivity** and **self-harm** seen in borderline personality disorder.
Question 6: Which section of the Indian Penal Code addresses dowry death?
- A. 304-A
- B. 304-B (Correct Answer)
- C. 176
- D. 302
Explanation: ***304-B*** - Section **304-B** of the Indian Penal Code specifically defines and provides punishment for **dowry death**. - It was introduced to address the increasing number of deaths of married women due to dowry-related harassment. *304-A* - Section **304-A** deals with **causing death by negligence** and is applied in cases where death results from a rash or negligent act, not dowry demands. - This section does not require intent to cause death or knowledge that death is likely to be caused, which is different from the specific circumstances of dowry death. *176* - Section **176** of the IPC relates to the **omission to give notice or information to public servant by person legally bound to give it**. - This section has no relevance to the offense of dowry death. *302* - Section **302** of the IPC prescribes the punishment for **murder**, which involves an intention to cause death or knowledge that death is likely to be caused. - While dowry-related deaths can sometimes fall under murder if intent is proven, **304-B** specifically addresses the unique circumstances of a dowry death within a certain timeframe of marriage.
Question 7: A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- B. Normal grief reaction
- C. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
- D. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder*** - The duration of symptoms (5 months) and severity, including **suicidal ideation** and significant occupational impairment, exceed what is typically expected for **normal grief** or **adjustment disorder**. - Symptoms like **sadness**, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, **poor sleep**, and poor appetite are classic for **major depressive disorder**, especially when persistent and functionally debilitating. *Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)* - While experiencing a traumatic event (witnessing his son's death) is a prerequisite for PTSD, the patient's primary symptoms are **depressive** rather than the characteristic re-experiencing, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, or hyperarousal associated with PTSD. - There is no mention of **flashbacks**, nightmares, or significant **avoidance behaviors** directly linked to the trauma beyond general withdrawal. *Normal grief reaction* - While grief is expected after the death of a child, the severity (suicidal ideation) and significant functional impairment (not attending work for 5 months) suggest a reaction beyond **normal grief**. - **Normal grief** typically doesn't involve persistent, severe functional impairment or recurrent suicidal thoughts over such a prolonged period without additional significant depressive symptoms. *Adjustment disorder with depressed mood* - **Adjustment disorder** usually resolves within 6 months of the stressor or its consequences ceasing, and symptoms are generally less severe than those seen in major depression. - The presence of **suicidal ideation** and profound, persistent functional impairment for 5 months makes **major depressive disorder** a more fitting diagnosis.
Question 8: A 72 year old lady is severely depressed. For the past 2 days she has suicidal thoughts with an actual intent to die. Which of the following is best suitable to alleviate the symptoms?
- A. ECT (Correct Answer)
- B. Selegiline
- C. Haloperidol + Chlorpromazine
- D. Amitriptyline
Explanation: ***ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy)*** - **ECT** is the most effective and rapid treatment for severe depression, especially when associated with active **suicidal ideation** and intent. - Its quick onset of action (often within days) makes it vital in situations requiring urgent symptom alleviation to ensure patient safety. - **First-line treatment** for geriatric depression with suicidal risk and when rapid response is needed. *Selegiline* - **Selegiline** is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression and Parkinson's disease, but its antidepressant effects are not immediate. - It would not sufficiently address the patient's acute suicidal intent due to its slower therapeutic onset (several weeks). *Haloperidol + Chlorpromazine* - This combination consists of **antipsychotics**, primarily used for conditions with psychotic features or severe agitation but not as a primary treatment for severe depression with suicidal ideation. - While they might provide some sedation, they do not treat the underlying depressive disorder effectively and rapidly enough to resolve acute suicidal intent. *Amitriptyline* - **Amitriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that can be effective for depression but has a delayed onset of action (2-4 weeks). - **Highly contraindicated in suicidal patients** due to its extreme lethality in overdose (cardiotoxic effects). - Its slow therapeutic effect would not be appropriate for an urgent situation involving active suicidal thoughts with intent.
Question 9: Among which of the following conditions is suicide risk highest?
- A. Depression (Correct Answer)
- B. Alcohol dependence
- C. Dementia
- D. Schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Depression*** - **Major depressive disorder** is the psychiatric condition most frequently associated with **suicide**, accounting for a large percentage of completed suicides. - The presence of severe depression, especially with features like **hopelessness**, **agitation**, and **prior suicide attempts**, significantly elevate the risk. *Alcohol dependence* - While **alcohol dependence** is a significant risk factor for suicide, it often co-occurs with mood disorders like depression; alcohol can exacerbate suicidal ideation and impulsivity. - It is an important comorbidity, but **major depression** alone has a higher prevalence in suicide statistics than alcohol dependence as a primary factor. *Dementia* - **Dementia** generally poses a lower risk of completed suicide compared to mood disorders, as cognitive decline can impair the ability to plan and execute such acts. - Early stages of dementia, particularly when insight into cognitive decline is preserved, may carry some risk, but it is not the highest risk condition overall. *Schizophrenia* - Individuals with **schizophrenia** have a significantly elevated risk of suicide compared to the general population, often due to factors like **command hallucinations**, hopelessness, and adverse effects of medication. - However, **depression** remains the leading psychiatric diagnosis associated with suicide completions.
Question 10: Police inquest is NOT required in:
- A. Suicide
- B. Murder
- C. Death in police custody
- D. Natural death due to disease in elderly person at home (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Natural death due to disease in elderly person at home*** - Police inquest is **NOT required** for natural deaths occurring at home with a known medical condition - A registered medical practitioner who has been attending the deceased can issue a death certificate - No suspicion of foul play or unnatural circumstances exists - This is the only scenario among the options where police involvement is not mandated *Death in police custody* - Police inquest is **absolutely required** under **Section 176 CrPC** (mandatory magisterial inquiry) - Custodial deaths are considered highly sensitive and require thorough investigation - Ensures accountability and rules out torture, negligence, or human rights violations - Automatic judicial oversight is mandated by law *Suicide* - Police inquest is **required** as suicide is classified as an **unnatural death** - Investigation needed to confirm manner of death and rule out homicide - Section 174 CrPC mandates police investigation for all unnatural deaths - Documentation required for legal and insurance purposes *Murder* - Police inquest is **absolutely required** as murder is a **criminal homicide** - Section 174 CrPC mandates immediate police investigation - Crime scene examination, evidence collection, and suspect identification are essential - Forms the basis for criminal prosecution under IPC Section 302
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