Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) — MCQs
An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
The disability adjusted life years (DALYs) lost due to neuropsychiatric disorders are highest in -
Double depression is seen in:
A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
What deficiency may contribute to relapse in a patient who has experienced remission with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A 6 year old child who does not interact with other children of his age group and prefers playing alone with repetitive behaviors, is likely to be suffering from:
Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of
La belle indifference is seen in?
Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: An old man is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. His son reports that he always shows suicidal tendencies. What is the treatment of choice for depression with suicidal tendencies?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. ECT (Correct Answer)
- C. Mirtazapine
- D. Clozapine
Explanation: ***ECT*** - **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is the **treatment of choice** for severe depression with **suicidal ideation** due to its rapid onset of action and high efficacy. - It is particularly indicated when there is an urgent need for symptom remission to prevent self-harm, as verbal therapies and medications take longer to exert their full effects. *Olanzapine* - **Olanzapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** with some antidepressant properties, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe depression with suicidal tendencies. - It is often used as an **adjunctive treatment** in treatment-resistant depression or in psychotic depression with delusions. *Mirtazapine* - **Mirtazapine** is an **antidepressant** that can be very effective in cases of major depressive disorder, especially when insomnia and appetite loss are prominent. - However, its onset of action is not as rapid as ECT, making it less suitable for situations requiring immediate intervention for **severe suicidal risk**. *Clozapine* - **Clozapine** is an **antipsychotic medication** primarily used for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and reducing suicidal behavior in schizophrenia. - It is highly effective but has significant side effects, including **agranulocytosis**, and is not a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder with suicidal tendencies.
Question 2: A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Major depressive disorder plus psychosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Schizoaffective disorder
- D. Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder plus psychosis*** - The patient presents with classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, **anhedonia (loss of interest)**, **lethargy**, and **early morning awakening**. - The presence of **auditory hallucinations** (hearing voices asking her to kill herself) indicates **psychotic features** accompanying the severe depression, leading to the diagnosis of major depressive disorder with psychotic features. *Schizophrenia* - While schizophrenia involves psychosis, the primary presentation here is a prominent **depressive syndrome** rather than the typical **positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations)**, **negative symptoms (alogia, avolition)**, and **disorganized thought** processes characteristic of schizophrenia. - The depressive symptoms are too pervasive and central to the clinical picture to be solely schizophrenia. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder requires a period of **at least two weeks of psychotic symptoms** (hallucinations or delusions) **without prominent mood symptoms**, which is not described. - In this case, the **psychotic symptoms are congruent with the depressed mood** (e.g., voices urging self-harm, reflecting hopelessness), rather than independent. *Schizotypal personality disorder* - This is a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as by **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentricities of behavior. - It does not involve persistent, severe depressive episodes with overt psychotic symptoms as described, nor significant functional impairment to the extent seen here.
Question 3: The disability adjusted life years (DALYs) lost due to neuropsychiatric disorders are highest in -
- A. Panic disorders
- B. Obsessive compulsive disorder
- C. Bipolar affective disorders
- D. Unipolar depressive disorders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unipolar depressive disorders*** - **Unipolar depressive disorders** are the leading cause of DALYs lost among neuropsychiatric conditions globally. - This is due to their **high prevalence**, **early age of onset**, and significant impact on **functional capacity** and quality of life. *Panic disorders* - While panic disorders significantly impair an individual's quality of life, their **prevalence** and **disability burden** are generally lower than that of unipolar depressive disorders. - They tend to cause episodic, intense distress rather than chronic, pervasive functional impairment to the same extent as severe depression. *Obsessive compulsive disorder* - **OCD** can be severely disabling, but its **prevalence** is lower than that of unipolar depressive disorders. - The impact on DALYs, while substantial for affected individuals, does not reach the global burden attributed to depression. *Bipolar affective disorders* - **Bipolar affective disorders** contribute significantly to DALYs due to their chronic nature and severe episodes of mood disturbance. - However, their **prevalence** is lower compared to unipolar depressive disorders, resulting in a lower overall DALY burden globally.
Question 4: Double depression is seen in:
- A. Depression with dysthymia (Correct Answer)
- B. Depression with anxiety attack
- C. Major depression with OCD
- D. Major depressive disorder from 2 years
Explanation: ***Depression with dysthymia*** - **Double depression** is a specific mood disorder characterized by the co-occurrence of a **major depressive episode** on top of a pre-existing **dysthymic disorder** (persistent depressive disorder). - This means an individual experiences the chronic, milder symptoms of dysthymia, which are then worsened by the more severe symptoms of a major depressive episode. *Depression with anxiety attack* - While depression and anxiety attacks can co-occur, this specific combination is not referred to as **double depression**. - **Anxiety attacks** are acute episodes of intense fear and discomfort, often associated with panic disorder, and are distinct from chronic low-grade depressive symptoms. *Major depression with OCD* - **Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** is a distinct anxiety disorder characterized by obsessions and compulsions, which can co-occur with major depression. - However, the term **double depression** specifically refers to the combination of major depression and dysthymia, not other psychiatric comorbidities. *Major depressive disorder from 2 years* - Experiencing **major depressive disorder for 2 years** implies a chronic course of major depression. - If the symptoms meet the criteria for major depressive disorder continuously for at least two years, it might be termed **chronic major depressive disorder**, but not double depression, unless there was an underlying dysthymia.
Question 5: A 30-year-old male was brought for evaluation, with a history of his 3-year-old son's death, 5 months prior, following a car accident. At the time of the accident, the patient was a witness. Since then, he has experienced symptoms of sadness, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, poor sleep, and poor appetite. He has had suicidal thoughts on two occasions, but has not acted on them. He has not been attending work for the past 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- B. Normal grief reaction
- C. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
- D. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder*** - The duration of symptoms (5 months) and severity, including **suicidal ideation** and significant occupational impairment, exceed what is typically expected for **normal grief** or **adjustment disorder**. - Symptoms like **sadness**, crying spells, feelings of hopelessness, **poor sleep**, and poor appetite are classic for **major depressive disorder**, especially when persistent and functionally debilitating. *Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)* - While experiencing a traumatic event (witnessing his son's death) is a prerequisite for PTSD, the patient's primary symptoms are **depressive** rather than the characteristic re-experiencing, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, or hyperarousal associated with PTSD. - There is no mention of **flashbacks**, nightmares, or significant **avoidance behaviors** directly linked to the trauma beyond general withdrawal. *Normal grief reaction* - While grief is expected after the death of a child, the severity (suicidal ideation) and significant functional impairment (not attending work for 5 months) suggest a reaction beyond **normal grief**. - **Normal grief** typically doesn't involve persistent, severe functional impairment or recurrent suicidal thoughts over such a prolonged period without additional significant depressive symptoms. *Adjustment disorder with depressed mood* - **Adjustment disorder** usually resolves within 6 months of the stressor or its consequences ceasing, and symptoms are generally less severe than those seen in major depression. - The presence of **suicidal ideation** and profound, persistent functional impairment for 5 months makes **major depressive disorder** a more fitting diagnosis.
Question 6: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Diazepam
- D. Lithium carbonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.
Question 7: What deficiency may contribute to relapse in a patient who has experienced remission with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
- A. Pyridoxine
- B. Cobalamin
- C. Ascorbate
- D. Folate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Folate*** - **Folate (vitamin B9) deficiency** is strongly linked to depression and is a well-established cause of relapse in patients treated with antidepressants. - Folate plays a crucial role in the **one-carbon metabolism pathway**, which is essential for the synthesis of monoamine neurotransmitters including **serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine**. - Studies show that **low folate levels** are associated with poor response to SSRIs and TCAs, and folate supplementation can improve antidepressant efficacy. - Approximately **30% of depressed patients** have folate deficiency, making it a clinically significant factor in treatment resistance and relapse. *Cobalamin* - **Cobalamin (vitamin B12)** deficiency can cause neuropsychiatric symptoms including depression and cognitive impairment. - While B12 is important for myelin formation and neurotransmitter synthesis, it is less specifically implicated in antidepressant relapse compared to folate. - B12 deficiency more commonly presents with **cognitive and neurological symptoms** rather than pure mood symptoms. *Pyridoxine* - **Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)** is a cofactor in neurotransmitter synthesis, including serotonin and dopamine. - While B6 deficiency can contribute to mood disturbances, it is not commonly implicated as a primary cause of relapse in antidepressant-treated depression. *Ascorbate* - **Ascorbate (vitamin C)** is an antioxidant with some role in neurotransmitter metabolism. - Severe vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) can have psychiatric manifestations, but it is not typically associated with relapse in patients treated with SSRIs or TCAs.
Question 8: A 6 year old child who does not interact with other children of his age group and prefers playing alone with repetitive behaviors, is likely to be suffering from:
- A. ADHD
- B. Autism (Correct Answer)
- C. Depression
- D. Bipolar disorder
Explanation: ***Autism*** - Difficulties in **social interaction** and **communication**, along with **repetitive behaviors** and restricted interests, are core diagnostic features of **Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)**. - The child's preference for playing alone and lack of interaction with peers are hallmark signs of **social deficits** in ASD. *ADHD* - **Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)** primarily involves difficulties with **inattention**, **hyperactivity**, and **impulsivity**. - While children with ADHD may struggle socially, repetitive behaviors and a complete lack of interest in peer interaction are not typical primary symptoms. *Depression* - **Depression** in children often presents with **sadness**, **loss of interest** in previously enjoyed activities, changes in sleep or appetite, and irritability. - Social withdrawal in depression is usually due to low mood or anhedonia, rather than a fundamental difficulty in social understanding or a preference for repetitive play. *Bipolar disorder* - **Bipolar disorder** in children involves distinct episodes of **mania** (elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep) and **depression**. - The symptoms described do not align with the characteristic mood swings and episodic nature of bipolar disorder.
Question 9: Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of
- A. Involutional melancholia (Correct Answer)
- B. Atypical depression
- C. Depressive stupor
- D. Somatized depression
Explanation: ***Involutional melancholia*** - This is a **historical psychiatric term** (previously used in DSM-I and DSM-II) referring to severe **major depression** occurring in individuals of middle or old age, typically without a prior history of depressive episodes. - Its hallmark symptoms include **intense nihilism** (delusional beliefs of non-existence or loss), marked **somatization** (physical symptoms with no clear medical cause), and significant **agitation**. - In modern classification systems (DSM-5/ICD-11), this presentation would be diagnosed as **Major Depressive Disorder with psychotic features** or **Major Depression with melancholic features**. *Atypical depression* - Characterized by **mood reactivity** (mood improves in response to positive events), increased appetite, hypersomnia, and leaden paralysis. - It does not typically present with the severe nihilistic delusions or agitation seen in involutional melancholia. *Depressive stupor* - While reflecting a severe depressive state, **stupor** implies a state of near unresponsiveness, mutism, and lack of psychomotor activity. - This contrasts with the **agitation** described in the question, which is inconsistent with stupor. *Somatized depression* - This term describes depression where physical symptoms are prominent, often overshadowing mood symptoms. - While it involves **somatization**, it does not inherently include the intense **nihilism** or **agitation** specific to involutional melancholia.
Question 10: La belle indifference is seen in?
- A. Depression
- B. Cotard syndrome
- C. Conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder*** - **La belle indifference** refers to a patient's unconcerned attitude towards their symptoms, which are often dramatic, and is a classic but not pathognomonic feature of conversion disorder. - In **conversion disorder**, psychological stress is "converted" into physical symptoms affecting voluntary motor or sensory function, such as paralysis or blindness, without a neurological explanation. *Depression* - Patients with depression typically exhibit significant **distress** and concern over their symptoms, such as **sadness**, loss of interest, and functional impairment. - The emotional state in depression is characterized by dysphoria and often includes pronounced feelings of **helplessness** and **hopelessness**. *Cotard syndrome* - Is a rare psychiatric disorder characterized by a **nihilistic delusion**, where a person believes they are dead, do not exist, or have lost their organs or blood. - Patients with Cotard syndrome often show severe **anxiety**, **distress**, and sometimes withdrawal, rather than indifference to their bizarre symptoms. *Schizophrenia* - Patients with schizophrenia may display a range of emotional responses, including **flat affect** or **inappropriate affect**, but not typically "la belle indifference." - Their symptoms often include **hallucinations**, **delusions**, and disorganized thought, which usually cause significant impairment and distress, sometimes leading to significant isolation or perceived threats.
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