Mood Disorders in Special Populations — MCQs
An SSRI antidepressant, such as fluoxetine, will be prescribed for an adult patient. You should advise him or her that two of the most likely side effects or adverse responses that may eventually occur at therapeutic blood levels are which of the following?
Which of the following disorders is characterized by intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age?
F00 in ICD denotes
Which neurotransmitter deficit is MOST consistently implicated as the primary mechanism in the pathophysiology of depression?
A patient presents with symptoms of major depressive disorder. Which medication should be prescribed for treatment?
All of the following are true about bipolar disorder rapid cycling EXCEPT:
A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
Which of the following is false about bipolar disorder?
Serotonin is also known as?
Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?
Mood Disorders in Special Populations Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: An SSRI antidepressant, such as fluoxetine, will be prescribed for an adult patient. You should advise him or her that two of the most likely side effects or adverse responses that may eventually occur at therapeutic blood levels are which of the following?
- A. Sexual dysfunction and sleep disturbances (Correct Answer)
- B. Sexual dysfunction and nausea
- C. Headache and diarrhea
- D. Tremor and weight gain
Explanation: ***Sexual dysfunction and sleep disturbances*** - **Sexual dysfunction** is one of the most common and persistent adverse effects of SSRIs, affecting 40-65% of patients and continuing throughout treatment at therapeutic levels [2], [3]. - **Sleep disturbances** (insomnia or altered sleep architecture) can persist during long-term SSRI therapy and are among the eventual side effects patients experience [1], [2], [3]. - Both effects are characteristic of chronic SSRI use and significantly impact patient compliance and quality of life. *Sexual dysfunction and nausea* - While **sexual dysfunction** is indeed very common and persistent, **nausea** is typically a transient side effect that occurs during the first 1-2 weeks of treatment and usually resolves with continued use [2]. - The question specifically asks about *eventual* occurrence at therapeutic levels over time, making nausea less appropriate as it is not a chronic issue. *Tremor and weight gain* - **Tremor** is not among the most common side effects of SSRIs and occurs less frequently than sexual dysfunction or sleep disturbances. - **Weight gain** can occur with some SSRIs (particularly paroxetine), but fluoxetine is actually considered weight-neutral or may even cause weight loss in some patients, making this combination less likely for fluoxetine specifically [1]. *Headache and diarrhea* - Both **headache** and **diarrhea** are common initial side effects when starting SSRIs but typically improve or resolve within the first few weeks of treatment [1]. - These are transient effects rather than eventual persistent side effects that characterize long-term therapeutic use.
Question 2: Which of the following disorders is characterized by intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age?
- A. Atypical depression
- B. Bipolar depression
- C. Involutional melancholia (Correct Answer)
- D. Somatized depression
Explanation: ***Involutional melancholia*** - This term refers to a severe depressive disorder in **late adulthood** characterized by profound **nihilism** (belief in the meaninglessness of existence), **somatization** (physical symptoms without a physical cause), and **agitation**. - It often involves prominent **psychotic features** like delusional guilt, nihilistic delusions (e.g., believing one's organs are rotting), and severe anxiety, distinguishing it from other forms of depression in older adults. - **Note**: This is a **historical diagnostic term** no longer used in DSM-5/ICD-11. The condition is now classified as **Major Depressive Disorder with melancholic features** or **with psychotic features** (when delusions are present). *Atypical depression* - Characterized by mood reactivity (mood improves in response to positive events), **increased appetite**, **hypersomnia**, leaden paralysis, and interpersonal rejection sensitivity. - This presentation is largely opposite to the **agitation** and severe **nihilism** seen in the described disorder. *Bipolar depression* - Occurs as part of **bipolar disorder**, involving episodes of both depression and mania/hypomania. - While it can be severe, the specific constellation of **intense nihilism**, prominent **somatization**, and persistent **agitation** in old age is more characteristic of what was historically termed involutional melancholia. *Somatized depression* - Refers to depression where **physical symptoms** are prominent. While somatization is present in the question, the defining features of **intense nihilism** and **agitation** are not specific to somatized depression. - This term usually emphasizes the physical presentation, whereas involutional melancholia describes a broader, severe depressive syndrome typical of later life.
Question 3: F00 in ICD denotes
- A. mood disorders
- B. organic disorders (Correct Answer)
- C. substance use
- D. psychosis
Explanation: ***Organic disorders - CORRECT*** - **F00-F09** in the **International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10)** Chapter V (Mental and behavioural disorders) specifically denotes **organic, including symptomatic, mental disorders** - These disorders are characterized by brain disease, brain injury, or other insult leading to **cerebral dysfunction** - **F00** specifically refers to **Dementia in Alzheimer's disease** *Mood disorders - Incorrect* - Mood disorders are classified under codes **F30-F39** in ICD-10 - This category includes conditions like bipolar affective disorder, depressive episodes, and recurrent depressive disorders *Substance use - Incorrect* - Mental and behavioral disorders due to psychoactive substance use are classified under codes **F10-F19** in ICD-10 - This section covers disorders resulting from the use of alcohol, opioids, cannabis, sedatives, hypnotics, and other substances *Psychosis - Incorrect* - Specific psychotic disorders like schizophrenia are classified under codes **F20-F29** in ICD-10 - Psychosis can be a symptom of various mental disorders, including some organic conditions
Question 4: Which neurotransmitter deficit is MOST consistently implicated as the primary mechanism in the pathophysiology of depression?
- A. Norepinephrine
- B. GABA
- C. Serotonin (Correct Answer)
- D. Dopamine
Explanation: ***Serotonin (decreased levels)*** - The **monoamine hypothesis** of depression suggests that a functional deficit of neurotransmitters is central to its pathophysiology, with **serotonin (5-HT) most consistently highlighted as the primary driver**. - Reduced levels of serotonin in the synaptic cleft lead to impaired neurotransmission, affecting **mood**, **sleep**, **appetite**, and **cognitive functions**. - Most **selective serotonergic antidepressants (SSRIs)** target this pathway as first-line treatment, underscoring serotonin's central role. *Norepinephrine (decreased levels)* - **Norepinephrine** is another monoamine neurotransmitter implicated in depression, and its deficiency contributes to depressive symptoms. - Low norepinephrine levels are linked to symptoms like **fatigue**, **difficulty concentrating**, and **anhedonia**. - However, while important, **decreased serotonin is more consistently emphasized as the primary pathophysiological mechanism** in most contemporary models of depression. *GABA (reduced levels)* - **GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)** is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain; reduced levels are associated more strongly with **anxiety disorders** and seizure disorders. - While GABAergic system dysfunction can contribute to certain depressive symptoms, it is not considered a primary mechanism for the core pathophysiology of depression. *Dopamine (increased levels)* - **Increased dopamine levels** are more commonly associated with conditions like **schizophrenia** (mesolimbic pathway) and **mania**, not depression. - Conversely, **decreased** dopamine levels (particularly in the mesocortical pathway) are linked to anhedonia and lack of motivation in depression, making this option factually incorrect.
Question 5: A patient presents with symptoms of major depressive disorder. Which medication should be prescribed for treatment?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Olanzapine
- C. Alprazolam
- D. Sertraline (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sertraline*** - **Sertraline** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, which are first-line agents for treating major depressive disorder due to their efficacy and generally favorable side effect profile. - SSRIs work by increasing the availability of **serotonin** in the brain, helping to improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** primarily used to treat psychotic disorders like **schizophrenia** and severe agitation, not major depressive disorder. - It works by blocking **dopamine D2 receptors**, and its side effects can include **extrapyramidal symptoms**. *Alprazolam* - **Alprazolam** is a **benzodiazepine** used to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks due to its *rapid onset of action* in reducing anxiety symptoms. - While it can alleviate anxiety that co-occurs with depression, it is not an antidepressant and does not treat the underlying depressive disorder; it also carries a risk of **dependence and withdrawal**. *Olanzapine* - **Olanzapine** is a **second-generation antipsychotic** used for conditions such as **schizophrenia** and **bipolar disorder**. - While it can be used as an **adjunctive treatment** in some cases of treatment-resistant depression, it is not a first-line monotherapy for major depressive disorder.
Question 6: All of the following are true about bipolar disorder rapid cycling EXCEPT:
- A. Associated with hypothyroidism
- B. More common in males (Correct Answer)
- C. Often worsened by antidepressants
- D. Defined by ≥4 mood episodes per year
Explanation: ***More common in males*** - **Rapid cycling** in bipolar disorder is actually **more common in females** than in males. - While overall prevalence of bipolar disorder is similar between sexes, rapid cycling and mixed features tend to be more frequent in women. *Defined by ≥4 mood episodes per year* - This is the correct definition of **rapid cycling** in bipolar disorder according to diagnostic criteria (DSM-5). - These episodes can be of major depressive, manic, hypomanic, or mixed types. *Often worsened by antidepressants* - **Antidepressants** can sometimes **induce mania** or **accelerate cycling** in vulnerable individuals with bipolar disorder. - This risk is particularly elevated in rapid cycling presentations, leading to caution in their use. *Associated with hypothyroidism* - There is a recognized association between **hypothyroidism** and **rapid cycling** in bipolar disorder. - Treating underlying thyroid dysfunction can sometimes help stabilize mood in these patients.
Question 7: A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Major depressive disorder plus psychosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Schizoaffective disorder
- D. Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder plus psychosis*** - The patient presents with classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, **anhedonia (loss of interest)**, **lethargy**, and **early morning awakening**. - The presence of **auditory hallucinations** (hearing voices asking her to kill herself) indicates **psychotic features** accompanying the severe depression, leading to the diagnosis of major depressive disorder with psychotic features. *Schizophrenia* - While schizophrenia involves psychosis, the primary presentation here is a prominent **depressive syndrome** rather than the typical **positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations)**, **negative symptoms (alogia, avolition)**, and **disorganized thought** processes characteristic of schizophrenia. - The depressive symptoms are too pervasive and central to the clinical picture to be solely schizophrenia. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder requires a period of **at least two weeks of psychotic symptoms** (hallucinations or delusions) **without prominent mood symptoms**, which is not described. - In this case, the **psychotic symptoms are congruent with the depressed mood** (e.g., voices urging self-harm, reflecting hopelessness), rather than independent. *Schizotypal personality disorder* - This is a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as by **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentricities of behavior. - It does not involve persistent, severe depressive episodes with overt psychotic symptoms as described, nor significant functional impairment to the extent seen here.
Question 8: Which of the following is false about bipolar disorder?
- A. Unipolar mania is more common than bipolar disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Genetic factors play important role
- C. Rapid cycling is more common in females
- D. Age of onset is earlier than unipolar depression
Explanation: ***Unipolar mania is more common than bipolar disorder*** - This statement is **false** because **unipolar mania is extremely rare**, while **bipolar disorder (which includes both manic and depressive episodes)** is significantly more common. - **Unipolar mania** refers to recurrent manic episodes without any depressive episodes, a presentation that is seldom observed clinically. *Genetic factors play important role* - This statement is **true**, as **bipolar disorder has a strong genetic component**, with **heritability estimated between 60-80%**. - **First-degree relatives** of individuals with bipolar disorder are at a significantly higher risk of developing the condition. *Rapid cycling is more common in females* - This statement is **true**; **rapid cycling (4 or more mood episodes per year)** occurs more frequently in females with bipolar disorder. - **Women with bipolar disorder** are also more likely to experience **mixed features** and **more depressive episodes** compared to males. *Age of onset is earlier than unipolar depression* - This statement is **true** because the **typical age of onset for bipolar disorder is in early adulthood (late teens to early 20s)**, whereas **unipolar depression often has a later average onset**, though both can occur at any age. - An earlier age of onset in bipolar disorder is linked to poorer prognosis and more severe illness course.
Question 9: Serotonin is also known as?
- A. 3-Methoxytyramine
- B. Phenethylamine
- C. N-methyl phenylamine
- D. 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)*** - **Serotonin** is the common name for the neurotransmitter **5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)**. - This chemical name reflects its structure, derived from tryptophan, indicating a **hydroxyl group** at the 5-position of the **indole ring** and an **ethylamine side chain**. *3-Methoxytyramine* - **3-Methoxytyramine** is a metabolite of **dopamine**, not serotonin. - It is formed by the action of **catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)** on dopamine. *Phenethylamine* - **Phenethylamine** is a naturally occurring trace amine that acts as a **neuromodulator** or neurotransmitter. - It is structurally similar to certain recreational drugs but is not serotonin. *N-methyl phenylamine* - **N-methyl phenylamine** or N-methylaniline is an **organic chemical** used in dyes and other industrial applications. - It is not a neurotransmitter and has no relation to serotonin.
Question 10: Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?
- A. History of post-partum psychosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Primiparity
- C. Undesired pregnancy
- D. Unmarried status
Explanation: ***History of post-partum psychosis*** - A **prior episode of postpartum psychosis** is the strongest risk factor for recurrence, with recurrence rates estimated to be as high as 50-70%. - This indicates a heightened **biological vulnerability** to the hormonal and psychosocial stresses of the postpartum period. *Primiparity* - While primiparity can be associated with increased stress, it is a **less significant risk factor** for postpartum psychosis compared to a history of the condition. - The stress of a first pregnancy and childbirth can contribute to other perinatal mood disorders, but does not carry the same high recurrence risk as previous psychosis. *Undesired pregnancy* - An undesired pregnancy is often associated with **increased maternal stress, anxiety, and depression**, but it is generally a **weaker predictor** of postpartum psychosis than a personal history of the disorder. - While it can complicate the perinatal period, it doesn't confer the same high risk for a severe psychotic episode. *Unmarried status* - Unmarried status may increase the risk of **postpartum depression** due to lack of social support or increased stress, but it is **not a primary risk factor** for postpartum psychosis itself. - The familial and social support systems are important for overall well-being, but a previous psychotic episode is a much stronger predictor.
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