Psychiatric Rating Scales — MCQs
What is the code for mental disorders in the ICD-10 classification?
Which of the following mental health disorders is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?
An elderly patient with dementia is brought by family members who report concerns about self-neglect. On examination, you notice atrophic, dry nasal mucosa, extensive encrustations, and a woody, hard external nose. The family attributes these findings to poor hygiene due to cognitive decline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
In which of the following conditions is behavior therapy considered most effective?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by intense depression and misery?
A patient with bipolar disorder shows poor response to lithium. Which feature best explains this?
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
All are used in OCD except:
Psychiatric Rating Scales Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the code for mental disorders in the ICD-10 classification?
- A. E
- B. F (Correct Answer)
- C. P
- D. G
Explanation: ***F*** - In the **ICD-10 classification**, the chapter for **Mental and behavioural disorders** is designated by the letter **'F'**. - This chapter covers a wide range of conditions, from mental retardation to mood disorders and substance-related disorders. *E* - The letter **'E'** in ICD-10 is used for **Endocrine, nutritional and metabolic diseases**. - This category includes conditions like diabetes mellitus and thyroid disorders. *P* - The letter **'P'** in ICD-10 denotes **Certain conditions originating in the perinatal period**. - These are conditions that arise during the period around childbirth. *G* - The letter **'G'** in ICD-10 refers to **Diseases of the nervous system**. - This chapter includes conditions like epilepsy, Parkinson's disease, and stroke.
Question 2: Which of the following mental health disorders is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?
- A. Depression (Correct Answer)
- B. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
- C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
- D. Schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Depression*** - **Clinical depression**, especially severe or recurrent episodes, is a primary risk factor for **suicidal ideation** and attempts. - The symptoms of profound sadness, anhedonia, hopelessness, and worthlessness significantly increase the likelihood of **suicidal tendencies**. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)* - While **PTSD** is associated with an increased risk of suicide, particularly due to high rates of comorbidity with depression and substance abuse, it is not the most common standalone diagnosis linked to suicidal tendencies. - **Flashbacks**, nightmares, and hypervigilance are core symptoms, but direct suicidal intent is often mediated by co-occurring conditions. *Schizophrenia* - Individuals with **schizophrenia** have a significantly elevated risk of suicide, particularly during early stages of the illness or during psychotic exacerbations. - However, the overall prevalence of schizophrenia is lower than that of depression, making **depression** a more common underlying factor in the general population presenting with suicidal tendencies. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - **OCD** can cause significant distress and impairment, and some individuals may experience suicidal ideation due to the chronicity and intrusiveness of their obsessions and compulsions. - However, **OCD** is generally considered to have a lower direct association with suicide compared to major depressive disorder, though comorbid depression can heighten the risk.
Question 3: An elderly patient with dementia is brought by family members who report concerns about self-neglect. On examination, you notice atrophic, dry nasal mucosa, extensive encrustations, and a woody, hard external nose. The family attributes these findings to poor hygiene due to cognitive decline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Rhinoscleroma (Correct Answer)
- B. Nasal polyposis
- C. Atrophic rhinitis
- D. Chronic sinusitis
Explanation: ***Rhinoscleroma*** - This is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by *Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis* characterized by progressive **fibrosis and sclerosis** of the respiratory tract - The description of a **"woody, hard external nose"** with extensive encrustations and atrophic changes is **pathognomonic for rhinoscleroma** - Often leads to significant nasal deformity and represents a serious chronic infection requiring systemic antibiotics - In elderly patients with cognitive decline, this condition may be misattributed to poor hygiene, delaying proper diagnosis *Nasal polyposis* - Presents with **boggy, edematous, grape-like masses** in the nasal cavity - The symptoms described (woody, hard external nose with atrophic mucosa) are **not typical for nasal polyposis** - Usually causes nasal obstruction and anosmia but does not cause hardening of the external nose *Atrophic rhinitis* - Involves progressive **atrophy of the nasal mucosa** and turbinates with **fetid odor (ozena)**, crusting, and nasal dryness - While this shares some features (atrophy, crusting), it does **not cause a woody, hard external nose** - The external nasal deformity is the key distinguishing feature pointing to rhinoscleroma *Chronic sinusitis* - Characterized by persistent inflammation of the paranasal sinuses with nasal discharge and congestion - Does **not cause atrophic, dry nasal mucosa** or a **woody, hard external nose** - Typically presents with facial pain, purulent discharge, and pressure symptoms
Question 4: Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
- A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
- B. SSRIs
- C. Clomipramine
- D. Systematic desensitisation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Systematic desensitisation*** - This therapy is primarily used to treat **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders** where avoidance is a key feature and a clear, single trigger can be identified. - While it involves exposure, the gradual hierarchy and relaxation training are less effective for the complex, intrusive thoughts and compulsive rituals characteristic of **OCD**. *Cognitive behavioral therapy* - **CBT, particularly Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is considered the gold standard psychotherapy for OCD. - It directly addresses the **obsessions** by exposing the individual to feared thoughts or situations and then preventing the ritualistic responses. *SSRIs* - **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** are the first-line pharmacological treatment for OCD due to their efficacy in reducing obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. - They work by increasing the availability of **serotonin** in the brain. *Clomipramine* - **Clomipramine** is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) with potent **serotonergic effects**, making it highly effective in treating OCD, often when SSRIs are partially effective or not tolerated. - It is specifically approved for OCD and is sometimes considered a second-line or augmentation strategy.
Question 5: Which of the following disorders is classified under somatic symptom and related disorders in the DSM-5?
- A. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
- B. Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)
- C. Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder) (Correct Answer)
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)*** - **Conversion disorder** is characterized by neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**, yet are not intentionally produced. - It falls under **somatic symptom and related disorders** because the primary features are physical symptoms causing distress or functional impairment, rather than being malingered or feigned. *Phobic disorders (e.g., social anxiety disorder)* - **Phobic disorders** are classified under **anxiety disorders** in the DSM-5, not somatic symptom and related disorders. - They are primarily characterized by **intense, irrational fears** of specific objects or situations, leading to avoidance rather than prominent physical symptoms without a medical cause. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)* - **PTSD** is classified under **trauma- and stressor-related disorders** in the DSM-5, distinguished by symptoms developing after exposure to a traumatic event. - Its core features include **intrusive memories, avoidance, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity**, rather than unexplained physical symptoms. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - **OCD** is classified under **obsessive-compulsive and related disorders** in the DSM-5. - It is primarily characterized by the presence of **obsessions (recurrent, intrusive thoughts)** and/or **compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts)**, which are distinct from somatic symptoms.
Question 6: In which of the following conditions is behavior therapy considered most effective?
- A. Panic Attack
- B. Psychosis
- C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) (Correct Answer)
- D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)*** - **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, a type of behavior therapy, is the gold standard and most effective treatment for OCD. - ERP directly targets the **obsessions** and **compulsions** by gradually exposing individuals to feared situations without allowing them to perform their rituals. - OCD shows the **highest response rates** to pure behavior therapy compared to other psychiatric conditions. *Psychosis* - While supportive therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp) can be helpful, **behavior therapy alone is not considered the primary or most effective treatment** for core psychotic symptoms. - Management of psychosis primarily relies on **antipsychotic medications** to address symptoms like hallucinations and delusions. *Panic Attack* - Behavior therapy and CBT are effective for **Panic Disorder**, but the effectiveness is somewhat lower than for OCD. - Treatment for panic disorder often requires a **combination of behavioral and cognitive techniques** rather than pure behavior therapy alone. - Management typically includes breathing exercises, exposure to physical sensations, and cognitive restructuring. *Generalized Anxiety Disorder* - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)**, which includes behavioral components, is highly effective for GAD, but the **cognitive elements are essential** for addressing worry and rumination. - Pure behavior therapy (e.g., systematic desensitization) is less effective for GAD compared to OCD, as GAD involves pervasive cognitive distortions that require cognitive restructuring.
Question 7: Which of the following conditions is characterized by intense depression and misery?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Major depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
- C. Mania
- D. Melancholia
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder*** - This condition is primarily defined by a period of at least two weeks of **depressed mood** or **loss of interest or pleasure** (anhedonia). - Patients often experience profound **feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and misery**, along with other symptoms like changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration. - **MDD is the primary diagnostic category** for conditions characterized by intense depression and misery. *Schizophrenia* - Schizophrenia is characterized by **psychotic symptoms** such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought, and negative symptoms. - While people with schizophrenia might experience periods of low mood, the primary defining features are not intense depression and misery, but rather a **break from reality**. *Mania* - Mania is characterized by an **elevated or irritable mood**, increased energy, and hyperactivity, which are the opposite of depression. - Symptoms include **racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and impulsive behavior**, not intense depression. *Melancholia* - Melancholia is a **specifier for major depressive disorder**, not a standalone condition in DSM-5/ICD-11. - While melancholia describes a **particularly severe form** of depression with profound despondency, it is a **subtype or qualifier** applied to MDD, not a separate diagnostic entity. - **The question asks for a "condition"** - MDD is the primary condition, while melancholic features describe characteristics within that condition.
Question 8: A patient with bipolar disorder shows poor response to lithium. Which feature best explains this?
- A. Early age of onset
- B. Classical mania
- C. Family history of bipolar
- D. Mixed episodes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mixed episodes*** - The presence of **mixed episodes** (simultaneous manic and depressive symptoms) in bipolar disorder predicts a poorer response to **lithium** monotherapy. - Patients experiencing mixed features often require **antipsychotics** or **mood stabilizers** like valproate or carbamazepine in addition to or instead of lithium. *Early age of onset* - While an early age of onset can indicate a more severe course of bipolar disorder, it doesn't specifically predict **poor response to lithium**. - In fact, lithium can be effective in reducing the frequency of episodes for many patients with early-onset bipolar disorder. *Classical mania* - **Classical mania** (euphoric, agitated, pressured speech) is generally associated with a **good response to lithium**. - Lithium is considered a first-line treatment for classic euphoric mania. *Family history of bipolar* - A **family history of bipolar disorder** suggests a genetic predisposition but does not inherently predict a poor response to lithium. - Genetic factors can influence treatment response, but a positive family history alone is not a contraindication or predictor of lithium failure.
Question 9: Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of personality disorders?
- A. Starts in childhood.
- B. Behavior is maladaptive.
- C. Disorder results in personal distress.
- D. Ego dystonic symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ego dystonic symptoms*** - Personality disorders are characterized by **ego-syntonic** traits, meaning the individual perceives their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors as consistent with their self-image and acceptable. - **Ego-dystonic symptoms**, conversely, are experienced as alien, inconsistent with one's self-concept, and distressing (e.g., in OCD or major depressive disorder), which is **definitively NOT** a feature of personality disorders. - This is the key distinguishing feature: personality disorder traits are not perceived as problematic by the individual themselves (ego-syntonic), unlike neurotic disorders. *Starts in childhood.* - While personality traits and vulnerabilities may emerge in childhood, **formal diagnosis** of personality disorders is made in **late adolescence or early adulthood** (typically after age 18). - Per DSM-5 and ICD-11, the enduring pattern must be evident by early adulthood. - However, this option is less definitive as some underlying patterns do appear earlier, making "ego dystonic" the better answer. *Behavior is maladaptive.* - A **core diagnostic feature** of personality disorders is a pervasive pattern of **maladaptive behaviors** and inner experiences that deviate from cultural expectations. - These behaviors lead to distress, impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. - This IS characteristic of personality disorders. *Disorder results in personal distress.* - Despite ego-syntonic symptoms, individuals with personality disorders frequently experience **significant personal distress**, often arising from consequences of their behaviors, interpersonal conflicts, or functional impairment. - This distress IS characteristic, though it may be indirect rather than from the symptoms themselves. - This IS a feature of personality disorders.
Question 10: All are used in OCD except:
- A. Behavioural therapy
- B. Clomipramine
- C. SSRIs
- D. ECT (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***ECT*** - **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a treatment primarily used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments, **schizophrenia**, and **bipolar disorder with psychotic features**, not for OCD. - While it can be considered for very severe, refractory OCD in rare cases under specific guidelines, it is not a routine or primary treatment. *Behavioural therapy* - **Exposure and response prevention (ERP)**, a type of behavioral therapy, is considered the **gold standard non-pharmacological treatment** for OCD. - ERP involves gradually exposing the individual to feared situations or thoughts and preventing them from performing ritualistic compulsions. *Clomipramine* - **Clomipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** that is well-established as an effective pharmacotherapy for OCD. - It has potent serotonin reuptake inhibition properties, making it particularly useful in treating OCD symptoms. *SSRIs* - **Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** are considered **first-line pharmacological treatments** for OCD. - They work by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, helping to reduce obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
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