Psychocardiology — MCQs
The disability adjusted life years (DALYs) lost due to neuropsychiatric disorders are highest in -
A 24-year-old lady presented with sudden onset chest pain, palpitations lasting for about 20 minutes. She says there were 3 similar episodes in the past. All the investigations were normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
Which antipsychotic is most likely to cause metabolic syndrome?
Which of the following studies has given coronary risk factors?
A 60-year-old man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in a young female is?
A healthy middle-aged man who became emotionally upset during an argument with his brother suddenly developed chest pain and collapsed. He was declared dead upon arrival at the hospital. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 40-year-old male presents with sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitations, hot flushes, dizziness, and chest pain. He is afraid of dying. Physical examination is normal, and ECG and X-ray findings are also normal. What is the diagnosis?
Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?
Which class of medications is known to worsen the symptoms of delirium in patients post-cardiac surgery?
Psychocardiology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: The disability adjusted life years (DALYs) lost due to neuropsychiatric disorders are highest in -
- A. Panic disorders
- B. Obsessive compulsive disorder
- C. Bipolar affective disorders
- D. Unipolar depressive disorders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unipolar depressive disorders*** - **Unipolar depressive disorders** are the leading cause of DALYs lost among neuropsychiatric conditions globally. - This is due to their **high prevalence**, **early age of onset**, and significant impact on **functional capacity** and quality of life. *Panic disorders* - While panic disorders significantly impair an individual's quality of life, their **prevalence** and **disability burden** are generally lower than that of unipolar depressive disorders. - They tend to cause episodic, intense distress rather than chronic, pervasive functional impairment to the same extent as severe depression. *Obsessive compulsive disorder* - **OCD** can be severely disabling, but its **prevalence** is lower than that of unipolar depressive disorders. - The impact on DALYs, while substantial for affected individuals, does not reach the global burden attributed to depression. *Bipolar affective disorders* - **Bipolar affective disorders** contribute significantly to DALYs due to their chronic nature and severe episodes of mood disturbance. - However, their **prevalence** is lower compared to unipolar depressive disorders, resulting in a lower overall DALY burden globally.
Question 2: A 24-year-old lady presented with sudden onset chest pain, palpitations lasting for about 20 minutes. She says there were 3 similar episodes in the past. All the investigations were normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
- B. Acute psychosis
- C. Panic attack (Correct Answer)
- D. Mania
Explanation: ***Panic attack*** - The sudden onset of **chest pain** and **palpitations** in a young woman, lasting for a brief period (20 minutes), and occurring in recurrent episodes with all investigations being normal, are classic signs of a **panic attack**. - Panic attacks frequently mimic cardiac events, but the absence of organic findings despite recurrent episodes points towards a psychological origin. *Post-traumatic stress disorder* - While PTSD can involve symptoms of anxiety and panic, it is specifically triggered by a **traumatic event** and typically includes re-experiencing the trauma, avoidance, and hyperarousal, none of which are described here. - The patient's presentation primarily focuses on sudden physical symptoms rather than a direct link to past trauma or pervasive fear. *Acute psychosis* - Acute psychosis involves a severe break from reality, characterized by **hallucinations**, **delusions**, or disorganized thought and behavior, which are not present in this scenario. - The symptoms described are more consistent with an anxiety disorder rather than a thought disorder. *Mania* - Mania is a state of elevated mood, increased energy, and often includes symptoms like **reduced need for sleep**, **racing thoughts**, and **impulsive behavior**, which are not described in this patient's presentation. - The core symptoms are acute physical sensations of fear and discomfort, not sustained euphoria or grandiosity.
Question 3: Which antipsychotic is most likely to cause metabolic syndrome?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
- D. Risperidone
Explanation: ***Clozapine*** - **Clozapine** has the **highest risk** of causing **metabolic syndrome** among all antipsychotics, characterized by significant **weight gain**, **dyslipidemia**, **insulin resistance**, and **new-onset diabetes mellitus**. - Multiple meta-analyses consistently show clozapine causes the **most severe metabolic disturbances**, with weight gain often exceeding 5-10 kg in the first year of treatment. - The mechanism involves potent antagonism of **5-HT2C receptors**, **histamine H1 receptors**, and effects on **leptin signaling** and **glucose metabolism**. - Its use requires careful **metabolic monitoring** including baseline and periodic measurement of weight, BMI, waist circumference, fasting glucose, and lipid profile. - Despite these risks, clozapine remains the gold standard for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**, but its metabolic effects necessitate risk-benefit consideration. *Olanzapine* - **Olanzapine** has the **second-highest risk** for metabolic syndrome after clozapine, also causing significant weight gain and metabolic disturbances. - Like clozapine, it has potent **5-HT2C** and **H1 antagonism**, leading to increased appetite and altered glucose-lipid metabolism. - The metabolic risk is substantial but generally slightly less severe than clozapine in head-to-head comparisons. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic with a **significantly lower risk** of metabolic syndrome compared to clozapine or olanzapine. - Its primary adverse effects are **extrapyramidal symptoms** (akathisia, dystonia, parkinsonism) and **hyperprolactinemia** rather than metabolic disturbances. - It causes minimal weight gain and has low risk for diabetes or dyslipidemia. *Risperidone* - **Risperidone** has an **intermediate metabolic risk** among atypical antipsychotics, lower than clozapine or olanzapine but higher than some others like aripiprazole or ziprasidone. - While it can cause weight gain and metabolic changes, the magnitude is generally more modest. - Its more prominent side effect is **hyperprolactinemia** due to potent D2 antagonism.
Question 4: Which of the following studies has given coronary risk factors?
- A. Framingham (Correct Answer)
- B. Stanford study
- C. MONICA
- D. North Karelia
Explanation: ***Framingham*** - The **Framingham Heart Study** is a landmark prospective cohort study that has identified many of the well-known **risk factors for cardiovascular disease**, including hypertension, high cholesterol, smoking, and diabetes. - This ongoing study, started in 1948, has been instrumental in shaping our understanding of **coronary artery disease** development and prevention strategies. *North Karelia* - The **North Karelia Project** was a comprehensive community-based prevention program in Finland that successfully reduced cardiovascular disease risk factors. - While influential in demonstrating how to **implement prevention strategies**, it applied already-known risk factors rather than discovering new ones. - The program focused on reducing smoking, cholesterol, and blood pressure in the population. *Stanford study* - While Stanford University has conducted numerous influential medical studies, there isn't a single "Stanford study" primarily recognized for giving us the comprehensive list of coronary risk factors. - Many institutions contribute to medical knowledge, but the **Framingham Heart Study** stands out for this specific contribution. *MONICA* - The **MONICA (Monitoring Trends and Determinants in Cardiovascular Disease)** Project was a multinational WHO project that aimed to monitor cardiovascular disease trends and determinants. - While it provided valuable data on the **epidemiology of cardiovascular disease** and its risk factors, it primarily assessed trends in established risk factors rather than initially identifying them.
Question 5: A 60-year-old man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Delirium (Correct Answer)
- C. Depression
- D. Post-traumatic psychosis
Explanation: ***Delirium*** - The **acute onset** of memory loss and confusion **2 days after cardiac bypass surgery** is characteristic of **postoperative delirium**. - Delirium is a disturbance in **attention**, **awareness**, and **cognition** that develops over a short period (hours to days) and is directly related to a medical condition or procedure. - **Cardiac surgery** is a well-known risk factor, with delirium occurring in **10-50%** of cardiac bypass patients due to factors like anesthesia, hypoperfusion, inflammation, and physiological stress. - Key features here: **acute onset**, **temporal relationship to surgery**, and **memory/cognitive deficits** without psychotic symptoms. *Alzheimer's disease* - Alzheimer's is a **chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder** with **gradual onset** over months to years. - The **sudden appearance** of symptoms immediately after surgery cannot be explained by Alzheimer's disease. - While Alzheimer's causes memory impairment, it does not present acutely in the postoperative setting. *Depression* - Depression can cause **pseudodementia** with cognitive complaints, but the primary features would be **persistent low mood**, **anhedonia**, **sleep disturbance**, and **appetite changes**. - The **acute temporal link** to surgery and absence of mood symptoms make depression unlikely. - Cognitive symptoms in depression are typically subjective complaints rather than objective deficits. *Post-traumatic psychosis* - This would involve **psychotic symptoms** such as **hallucinations**, **delusions**, or **disorganized behavior**, which are not described in this case. - The presentation of simple **memory deficits** without psychotic features does not support this diagnosis. - Surgery itself is not typically considered a psychologically traumatic event that would trigger psychosis.
Question 6: The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in a young female is?
- A. TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
- B. Graves' disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Subacute thyroiditis
- D. Toxic multinodular goiter
Explanation: ***Graves' disease*** - This is an **autoimmune disorder** where antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland, leading to **overproduction of thyroid hormones** [1], [2]. - It is the **most common cause of hyperthyroidism** in young to middle-aged women, making it highly probable in a young female patient [1], [2]. *Toxic multinodular goiter* - This condition is characterized by **multiple nodules** within the thyroid gland that autonomously produce thyroid hormones. - While a cause of hyperthyroidism, it is **more common in older individuals**, typically those over 50 years of age. *Subacute thyroiditis* - This is a **self-limiting inflammatory condition** of the thyroid often following a viral infection, causing a transient hyperthyroid phase due to the release of preformed hormones. - It presents with **painful thyroid enlargement** and is usually followed by a hypothyroid phase, which is different from sustained hyperthyroidism. *TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma* - This is a **very rare cause of hyperthyroidism** where a pituitary tumor produces excess **Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)**, leading to thyroid overstimulation. - It is often accompanied by other symptoms of a pituitary mass like **headaches or visual field defects**, which are not implied here.
Question 7: A healthy middle-aged man who became emotionally upset during an argument with his brother suddenly developed chest pain and collapsed. He was declared dead upon arrival at the hospital. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy (Correct Answer)
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Chronic ischemic cardiomyopathy
- D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricle dysplasia
Explanation: ***Takotsubo cardiomyopathy*** - Presents with sudden **chest pain** and collapse following **severe emotional stress**, mimicking a myocardial infarction but often without significant coronary artery disease. - It involves dramatic and transient left ventricular systolic dysfunction, often described as **apical ballooning**, that can lead to acute heart failure and sudden death. *Dilated cardiomyopathy* - Typically presents with **progressive heart failure symptoms** such as dyspnea and fatigue, not sudden collapse after acute emotional stress. - It is characterized by **ventricular dilation** and impaired systolic function, developing over time from various causes. *Arrhythmogenic right ventricle dysplasia* - This condition primarily affects the **right ventricle**, leading to fibrofatty replacement of myocardial tissue and increasing the risk of **ventricular arrhythmias** and sudden cardiac death, especially during exertion. - The presentation of sudden collapse after emotional stress, without prior athletic activity, makes it less likely than Takotsubo cardiomyopathy. *Chronic ischemic cardiomyopathy* - This condition results from **long-standing coronary artery disease**, leading to **myocardial remodeling**, reduced systolic function, and chronic heart failure. - While it can cause sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmias, the acute onset after emotional upset in an otherwise healthy individual is less typical for a chronic process [1].
Question 8: A 40-year-old male presents with sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitations, hot flushes, dizziness, and chest pain. He is afraid of dying. Physical examination is normal, and ECG and X-ray findings are also normal. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Panic attack (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute psychosis
- C. Generalized anxiety disorder
- D. Factitious disorder
Explanation: ***Panic attack*** - The sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by a cluster of physical symptoms such as **breathlessness**, **palpitations**, **chest pain**, and a **fear of dying**, is characteristic of a panic attack. - The **normal physical examination**, **ECG**, and **X-ray findings** rule out organic causes, supporting a psychiatric diagnosis. *Generalized anxiety disorder* - Characterized by **persistent and excessive worry** about various daily life events, rather than discrete, intense episodes of fear. - While it can manifest with physical symptoms like fatigue or muscle tension, it typically lacks the **sudden, overwhelming nature** and **fear of dying** seen in panic attacks. *Factitious disorder* - Involves **intentional falsification or induction of physical or psychological symptoms** without obvious external rewards. - This patient's symptoms are presented as genuine and distressing, not as a deliberate fabrication for secondary gain. *Acute psychosis* - Characterized by a **marked impairment in reality testing**, often involving **hallucinations**, **delusions**, or disorganized thought and speech. - The patient's symptoms are primarily anxiety-related and physical, with no mention of such psychotic features.
Question 9: Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?
- A. History of post-partum psychosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Primiparity
- C. Undesired pregnancy
- D. Unmarried status
Explanation: ***History of post-partum psychosis*** - A **prior episode of postpartum psychosis** is the strongest risk factor for recurrence, with recurrence rates estimated to be as high as 50-70%. - This indicates a heightened **biological vulnerability** to the hormonal and psychosocial stresses of the postpartum period. *Primiparity* - While primiparity can be associated with increased stress, it is a **less significant risk factor** for postpartum psychosis compared to a history of the condition. - The stress of a first pregnancy and childbirth can contribute to other perinatal mood disorders, but does not carry the same high recurrence risk as previous psychosis. *Undesired pregnancy* - An undesired pregnancy is often associated with **increased maternal stress, anxiety, and depression**, but it is generally a **weaker predictor** of postpartum psychosis than a personal history of the disorder. - While it can complicate the perinatal period, it doesn't confer the same high risk for a severe psychotic episode. *Unmarried status* - Unmarried status may increase the risk of **postpartum depression** due to lack of social support or increased stress, but it is **not a primary risk factor** for postpartum psychosis itself. - The familial and social support systems are important for overall well-being, but a previous psychotic episode is a much stronger predictor.
Question 10: Which class of medications is known to worsen the symptoms of delirium in patients post-cardiac surgery?
- A. Antipsychotics
- B. Anticholinergics (Correct Answer)
- C. Benzodiazepines (BZD)
- D. Antihistamines
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Anticholinergics are the Correct Answer:** Delirium is fundamentally characterized by a neurochemical imbalance, most notably a **cholinergic deficiency** and a dopaminergic excess. Medications with anticholinergic properties (e.g., atropine, scopolamine, or certain tricyclic antidepressants) block acetylcholine receptors in the brain, directly precipitating or severely worsening the symptoms of delirium (confusion, disorientation, and cognitive impairment). In post-cardiac surgery patients, the brain is already vulnerable due to systemic inflammation and micro-emboli; adding an anticholinergic agent further destabilizes the neurotransmitter balance. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Antipsychotics:** These are actually the **treatment of choice** for the agitation associated with delirium. Low-dose Haloperidol is frequently used because it antagonizes dopamine, helping to restore the neurochemical balance. * **C. Benzodiazepines (BZD):** While BZDs can worsen delirium in the elderly or cause "paradoxical agitation," they are not the primary pharmacological *cause* of the underlying cholinergic deficit. They are generally avoided in delirium **unless** the delirium is caused by Alcohol Withdrawal or BZD withdrawal. * **D. Antihistamines:** While first-generation antihistamines (like diphenhydramine) have anticholinergic side effects and can cause delirium, "Anticholinergics" as a class is the more specific and direct answer regarding the underlying pathophysiology. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice for Delirium:** Haloperidol (IV/IM/Oral). * **Delirium vs. Dementia:** Delirium is acute, reversible, and characterized by **fluctuating levels of consciousness** and impaired attention. * **The "BZD Exception":** Use Benzodiazepines for delirium *only* if the etiology is Alcohol or Sedative-Hypnotic withdrawal. * **Post-Op Risk:** Post-cardiac surgery delirium is common (up to 30-50%) and is associated with increased mortality and longer ICU stays.
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