Psychosis in Children and Adolescents — MCQs
A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
Which of the following is not a Cluster A personality disorder?
Type of schizophrenia with intellectual disability:
Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
The primary disturbance in schizophrenia is:
Which of the following is considered a good prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
An 8 yr old child is having fever with pain and swelling in mid thigh. On Xray lamellated appearance and Codman's triangle is present. Histopathologic examination shows small round cells positive for MIC-2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 7-year-old child presents with a lesion in upper tibia. X-ray shows radiolucent area with Codman's triangle and sunray appearance. Diagnosis is
A 15-year-old boy presented with day dreaming and decline in school performance. The likely possibility is?
Psychosis in Children and Adolescents Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A patient complains of sadness of mood, increased lethargy, early morning awakening, loss of interest and reports no will to live and hears voices asking her to kill self. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Major depressive disorder plus psychosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Schizoaffective disorder
- D. Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation: ***Major depressive disorder plus psychosis*** - The patient presents with classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, **anhedonia (loss of interest)**, **lethargy**, and **early morning awakening**. - The presence of **auditory hallucinations** (hearing voices asking her to kill herself) indicates **psychotic features** accompanying the severe depression, leading to the diagnosis of major depressive disorder with psychotic features. *Schizophrenia* - While schizophrenia involves psychosis, the primary presentation here is a prominent **depressive syndrome** rather than the typical **positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations)**, **negative symptoms (alogia, avolition)**, and **disorganized thought** processes characteristic of schizophrenia. - The depressive symptoms are too pervasive and central to the clinical picture to be solely schizophrenia. *Schizoaffective disorder* - This disorder requires a period of **at least two weeks of psychotic symptoms** (hallucinations or delusions) **without prominent mood symptoms**, which is not described. - In this case, the **psychotic symptoms are congruent with the depressed mood** (e.g., voices urging self-harm, reflecting hopelessness), rather than independent. *Schizotypal personality disorder* - This is a pervasive pattern of **social and interpersonal deficits** marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as by **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentricities of behavior. - It does not involve persistent, severe depressive episodes with overt psychotic symptoms as described, nor significant functional impairment to the extent seen here.
Question 2: Which of the following is not a Cluster A personality disorder?
- A. schizoid
- B. schizotypal
- C. paranoid
- D. anankastic (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anankastic*** - **Anankastic personality disorder**, also known as **obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)**, is classified under **Cluster C** personality disorders. - Cluster C disorders are characterized by anxious, fearful thinking or behavior, which differentiates them from the odd or eccentric behaviors of Cluster A. *Schizoid* - **Schizoid personality disorder** is a **Cluster A** personality disorder, characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder typically show no desire for close relationships, including those with family members. *Schizotypal* - **Schizotypal personality disorder** is a **Cluster A** personality disorder, characterized by pervasive patterns of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior. - These individuals may have odd beliefs or magical thinking that is inconsistent with cultural norms. *Paranoid* - **Paranoid personality disorder** is a **Cluster A** personality disorder, characterized by a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent. - Individuals with this disorder often believe that others are exploiting, harming, or deceiving them, even without sufficient basis.
Question 3: Type of schizophrenia with intellectual disability:
- A. Catatonic schizophrenia
- B. Pfropf schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- C. Paranoid schizophrenia
- D. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Pfropf schizophrenia*** - **Pfropf schizophrenia** is a historical term specifically used to describe a form of schizophrenia that develops in individuals with **pre-existing intellectual disability** (formerly termed mental retardation). - The term "Pfropf" is derived from German, meaning "grafted" or "engrafted," referring to schizophrenia being "grafted onto" pre-existing intellectual disability. - This term distinguishes it from other types of schizophrenia where intellectual disability is not a primary defining characteristic. - While this classification is largely historical (modern DSM-5 has removed schizophrenia subtypes), it remains relevant for older examination questions. *Catatonic schizophrenia* - Characterized primarily by prominent **psychomotor disturbances**, which can include stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, mutism, and negativism. - While intellectual disability might coexist, it is not a defining feature of the catatonic subtype itself. *Paranoid schizophrenia* - Marked by the prominence of **delusions**, typically persecutory or grandiose, and **auditory hallucinations**. - Intellectual disability is not a core diagnostic criterion or a defining characteristic of this subtype. *Hebephrenic schizophrenia* - Also known as **disorganized schizophrenia**, this type is characterized by marked **disorganization of thought processes**, flat or inappropriate affect, and bizarre behavior. - While it often presents early and can lead to significant functional impairment, intellectual disability is not a defining feature; rather, the primary disturbance is in thought and emotion.
Question 4: Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
- A. Poor premorbid adjustment (Correct Answer)
- B. Male sex
- C. Presence of depression
- D. Blunted affect
Explanation: **Poor premorbid adjustment** - **Poor premorbid adjustment**, indicated by difficulties in social, academic, or occupational functioning before the onset of psychosis, is a consistent predictor of a worse outcome in schizophrenia. - This suggests a more pervasive and entrenched neurodevelopmental vulnerability impacting the individual's ability to cope and integrate socially. *Blunted affect (negative symptom)* - While **blunted affect** is a negative symptom often associated with poorer outcomes than positive symptoms, it is typically considered a *symptom* of the illness rather than a primary prognostic *factor* like premorbid adjustment. - Its presence contributes to disability, but it is not as strong an independent prognostic indicator as the life trajectory prior to illness onset. *Male sex (generally poorer prognosis)* - **Male sex** is generally associated with an **earlier age of onset** and often a **more severe course** of schizophrenia. - However, compared to significant functional impairment before disease onset, it is not as strong an individual predictor of overall long-term prognosis. *Presence of depression (often associated with better outcomes)* - The **presence of depressive symptoms** in schizophrenia is often associated with a **better prognosis**. - This is because depressive features can sometimes indicate a more preserved capacity for emotional experience and insight, which can align with higher functioning.
Question 5: The primary disturbance in schizophrenia is:
- A. Hallucination
- B. Illusion
- C. Formal Thought Disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Psychomotor Retardation
Explanation: ***Formal Thought Disorder*** - **Formal thought disorder** is considered the primary disturbance in schizophrenia, affecting the structure and organization of thought, leading to symptoms like **loosening of associations**, **tangentiality**, and **word salad**. - It underlies many of the other symptomatic manifestations of schizophrenia, influencing perception, belief, and behavior. *Hallucination* - **Hallucinations** are perceptual disturbances that occur in the absence of an external stimulus, most commonly auditory in schizophrenia. - While prominent in schizophrenia, hallucinations are a *symptom* arising from the underlying thought disorder, not the primary disturbance itself. *Illusion* - An **illusion** is a misinterpretation of an actual external stimulus. - Illusions are much less common in schizophrenia compared to hallucinations and are not considered a primary or defining feature of the disorder. *Psychomotor Retardation* - **Psychomotor retardation** involves a generalized slowing of physical and emotional reactions, and can be seen in conditions like depression or catatonia. - While it can occur in some forms of schizophrenia (e.g., catatonic type), it is not the primary or universal disturbance characterizing the disorder as a whole.
Question 6: Which of the following is considered a good prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
- A. Childhood onset of symptoms
- B. Acute onset of symptoms (Correct Answer)
- C. Poor premorbid functioning
- D. Predominant negative symptoms
Explanation: ***Acute onset of symptoms*** - An **acute onset of symptoms** is one of the most well-established **good prognostic factors** in schizophrenia. - It suggests a more sudden disturbance rather than a gradual deterioration process, indicating better potential for treatment response and remission. - This typically means the individual experienced a more defined break from baseline functioning, which is more amenable to intervention. *Childhood onset of symptoms* - **Childhood onset** (or very early onset) schizophrenia is associated with a **poor prognosis**, often due to more pervasive neurodevelopmental abnormalities and prolonged impact on development. - Individuals with childhood onset often have more severe symptoms, greater cognitive deficits, and poorer functional outcomes. *Poor premorbid functioning* - **Poor premorbid functioning** (e.g., social isolation, academic difficulties before symptom onset) is a well-established indicator of **poor prognosis** in schizophrenia. - This suggests pre-existing vulnerabilities and less developed coping mechanisms, making recovery more challenging. *Predominant negative symptoms* - **Predominant negative symptoms** (e.g., avolition, alogia, affective flattening, anhedonia) are associated with **poor prognosis** in schizophrenia. - Negative symptoms are less responsive to antipsychotic medications compared to positive symptoms and are strongly associated with worse functional outcomes and greater disability.
Question 7: Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
- A. 1,4
- B. 1,2,4
- C. 1,2,3,4
- D. 1,2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1,2*** - **D2 antagonism** is the primary mechanism by which antipsychotics reduce **positive symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. - **5HT2A antagonism** is a key mechanism of atypical antipsychotics contributing to the reduction of **negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, flat affect) and cognitive deficits, while also reducing the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. *1,2,3,4* - This option is incorrect because **5HT1A agonism** is not associated with **weight loss**. While 5HT1A partial agonism (as seen with aripiprazole and brexpiprazole) may improve negative symptoms, anxiety, and cognitive function, it does not directly cause weight loss. - Additionally, **muscarinic antagonism** does not reduce extrapyramidal symptoms as a primary mechanism. Rather, anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drugs like benztropine are used to **treat** EPS after it occurs. The reduction of EPS in atypical antipsychotics primarily comes from 5HT2A antagonism and lower D2 binding affinity. *1,2,4* - This option is incorrect because **muscarinic antagonism** is not a mechanism that reduces EPS. Anticholinergic agents are used therapeutically to counteract EPS caused by dopamine blockade, but anticholinergic effects themselves do not prevent or reduce EPS. - The reduction of EPS with atypical antipsychotics is mainly due to **5HT2A antagonism** balancing dopaminergic blockade, selective limbic over striatal binding, and fast D2 dissociation kinetics. *1,4* - This option is incorrect because it omits **5HT2A antagonism**, which is crucial for reducing **negative symptoms** in schizophrenia. - It also incorrectly includes muscarinic antagonism as a mechanism that reduces EPS, when in reality anticholinergics are used to treat EPS rather than prevent it.
Question 8: An 8 yr old child is having fever with pain and swelling in mid thigh. On Xray lamellated appearance and Codman's triangle is present. Histopathologic examination shows small round cells positive for MIC-2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Chondrosarcoma
- B. Chondroblastoma
- C. Ewings sarcoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Osteosarcoma
Explanation: ***Ewings sarcoma*** - The combination of **fever with pain and swelling** in a child, **lamellated (onion-skin) periosteal reaction**, **Codman's triangle** on X-ray, and **small round cells positive for MIC-2 (CD99)** on histopathology is classic for Ewing's sarcoma. - This highly aggressive bone tumor primarily affects children and young adults, often presenting with systemic symptoms and a diaphyseal or metadiaphyseal location in long bones. *Chondrosarcoma* - This tumor is characterized by the production of **cartilage matrix** and typically affects older adults (40-70 years old), not children. - Radiographically, it often shows **calcifications with rings and arcs** within a lucent lesion, and histopathology reveals chondrocytes, not small round cells positive for MIC-2. *Chondroblastoma* - Chondroblastoma is a rare, **benign cartilage tumor** that typically occurs in the **epiphysis of long bones** in adolescents and young adults. - It usually presents as a well-defined lytic lesion and does not typically show lamellated periosteal reactions or positive MIC-2 staining, nor does it commonly present with fever. *Osteosarcoma* - While osteosarcoma is also an aggressive bone tumor affecting children and adolescents, it is characterized by the production of **osteoid (immature bone)**. - Radiographically, it often presents with a **"sunburst" pattern** due to spiculated periosteal reaction and a **Codman's triangle**, but histopathology shows malignant osteoblasts, not small round cells positive for MIC-2.
Question 9: A 7-year-old child presents with a lesion in upper tibia. X-ray shows radiolucent area with Codman's triangle and sunray appearance. Diagnosis is
- A. Osteosarcoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteoid Osteoma
- C. Ewing sarcoma
- D. Chondrosarcoma
Explanation: ***Osteosarcoma*** - The classic radiographic features of **Codman's triangle** (periosteal elevation) and **sunray appearance** (spiculated periosteal reaction) are highly characteristic of osteosarcoma. - This tumor commonly affects the **metaphysis of long bones** in children and young adults, with the distal femur and proximal tibia being frequent sites. *Osteoid Osteoma* - This is a **benign bone tumor** characterized radiographically by a small radiolucent **nidus** surrounded by a rim of dense sclerosis. - It does not present with Codman's triangle or sunray appearance and typically causes **nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs**. *Ewing sarcoma* - Ewing sarcoma often presents with an **"onion skin" periosteal reaction** (layers of new bone formation) due to its aggressive nature. - While it can be destructive and radiolucent, it typically does not classically exhibit the sunray appearance or a distinct Codman's triangle as prominently as osteosarcoma. *Chondrosarcoma* - Chondrosarcoma is a **malignant cartilaginous tumor** that usually affects older adults more commonly than children. - Radiographically, it often shows a **lobulated appearance** with **punctate or ring-and-arc calcifications** within the lesion, not the sunray or Codman's triangle findings.
Question 10: A 15-year-old boy presented with day dreaming and decline in school performance. The likely possibility is?
- A. Typical absence seizure (Correct Answer)
- B. Atonic seizure
- C. Myoclonic seizure
- D. Atypical absence seizure
Explanation: ***Typical absence seizure*** - This presentation of **daydreaming** and **decline in school performance** is characteristic of typical absence seizures, which involve brief episodes of impaired consciousness without loss of postural tone. - These seizures are common in childhood and adolescence, often manifesting as staring spells that can be mistaken for inattention. *Atonic seizure* - An atonic seizure involves a **sudden loss of muscle tone**, leading to a sudden drop or fall, which is not described here. - While it can cause brief loss of consciousness, the primary feature is the motor event. *Myoclonic seizure* - Myoclonic seizures are characterized by **sudden, brief, jerking movements** of a muscle or muscle group. - They are typically very brief and do not involve the sustained staring spell or impaired awareness described. *Atypical absence seizure* - Atypical absence seizures have a **more gradual onset and offset** than typical absence seizures, and may be associated with more noticeable motor signs and less complete loss of awareness. - Daydreaming and decline in school performance are classic for typical, not atypical, absence seizures.
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