Child Abuse and Neglect — MCQs
Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of non-accidental injury?
According to POCSO, all of the following are aggravated sexual offence except:
What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing a stress fracture?
Which of the following is a criterion for infant at risk?
A baby was vigorously shaken by parents. What do you expect in the baby?
Which of the following findings is LEAST likely to be associated with battered child syndrome?
Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of shaken baby syndrome?
A child is brought to the casualty department with reports of violent shaking by parents. What is the most likely injury?
A 14-year-old victim of sexual assault with 22 weeks gestation has been brought for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Which of the following statements is true?
A 10-year-old child presents with persistent restlessness, inattentiveness to studies, and a strong preference for outdoor play. The parents are highly concerned. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Child Abuse and Neglect Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of non-accidental injury?
- A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
- B. Scurvy
- C. Caffey's disease
- D. Osteopetrosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Osteopetrosis*** - Osteopetrosis is a rare genetic disorder characterized by **increased bone density** due to defective osteoclast function - While it causes bones to be brittle and prone to fracture, it has **distinctive radiological features** including diffuse sclerosis and "bone-within-bone" appearance - The **increased bone density on X-ray** is pathognomonic and readily distinguishes it from NAI, making it **less likely to be confused** with non-accidental injury in clinical practice - Fractures occur but the radiological pattern is diagnostic of the underlying metabolic bone disease *Incorrect: Osteogenesis imperfecta* - This is a **classic differential** for NAI causing **multiple brittle bone fractures** that can be mistaken for abuse - Features include **blue sclera**, **dentinogenesis imperfecta**, **wormian bones**, and **family history** - Often presents with multiple fractures at different stages of healing, mimicking the pattern seen in NAI *Incorrect: Scurvy* - Caused by **vitamin C deficiency**, leads to defective collagen synthesis - Results in **subperiosteal hemorrhages**, **metaphyseal fractures**, and **periosteal elevation** that closely mimic NAI - Additional features include **gingival bleeding**, **petechiae**, **follicular hyperkeratosis**, and **poor wound healing** *Incorrect: Caffey's disease* - Also known as **infantile cortical hyperostosis**, presents in infants under 6 months - Causes **periosteal reactions**, **bone thickening**, and **soft tissue swelling** in long bones, ribs, and mandible - The periosteal new bone formation can be mistaken for healing fractures from NAI, making it an important differential
Question 2: According to POCSO, all of the following are aggravated sexual offence except:
- A. Rape by threatening (Correct Answer)
- B. Rape by police officer
- C. Gang Rape
- D. Rape during communal violence
Explanation: ***Rape by threatening*** - Under POCSO Act, **rape by threatening** (use of force or threat) constitutes the **basic offense** of penetrative sexual assault under **Section 3**, but does not by itself constitute an aggravating factor. - **Section 9** of POCSO defines specific aggravating circumstances that elevate the offense to aggravated penetrative sexual assault, and simple threatening is not listed as one of these factors. - Threat or force is an inherent element of the basic offense, not an aggravating circumstance. *Rape by police officer* - This is an **aggravated sexual offense** under **Section 9(e)** of POCSO Act. - The perpetrator being a **police officer or armed forces personnel** is specifically listed as an aggravating factor due to the **abuse of position of authority and public trust**. - Such offenses carry enhanced punishment recognizing the gravity of betrayal of official duty. *Gang Rape* - **Gang rape** (sexual assault by one or more persons acting in furtherance of common intention) is explicitly an **aggravated sexual offense** under **Section 9(d)** of POCSO. - The involvement of **multiple perpetrators** significantly increases the trauma and vulnerability of the child victim. - This is a clearly defined aggravating circumstance with enhanced penalties. *Rape during communal violence* - This is categorized as an **aggravated sexual offense** under **Section 9(j)** of POCSO Act. - Sexual assault committed during **communal or sectarian violence** is specifically recognized as an aggravating factor. - The context of public disorder and the intent to terrorize communities makes this offense more heinous in the eyes of law.
Question 3: What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing a stress fracture?
- A. X-ray
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. Bone scan
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for diagnosing **stress fractures**, especially in their early stages. - It can detect **bone marrow edema** and **periosteal reactions** indicative of stress injury before cortical changes are visible on plain radiographs. *X-ray* - **X-rays** are often the initial investigation, but they have low sensitivity for **stress fractures** in the early stages as bone changes may not be apparent for several weeks. - A positive X-ray for stress fracture typically shows a **sclerotic line** or **periosteal reaction**, but this indicates a more advanced injury. *CT scan* - **CT scans** provide excellent detail of **cortical bone** and can detect subtle fractures not seen on X-rays. - While more sensitive than X-rays, CT has **higher radiation exposure** and is generally less sensitive than MRI for early detection of **bone marrow edema** associated with stress injuries. *Bone scan* - **Bone scans** (scintigraphy) are highly sensitive for detecting increased **osteoblastic activity** associated with stress fractures. - However, they are **less specific** as various conditions can cause increased uptake, and they do not provide detailed anatomical information, making MRI superior for definitive diagnosis and staging.
Question 4: Which of the following is a criterion for infant at risk?
- A. Preeclampsia in pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- B. Has not taken 100 days folic acid
- C. Malpresentation during birth
- D. Working mothers
Explanation: ***Preeclampsia in pregnancy*** - **Preeclampsia** is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. - Infants born to mothers with preeclampsia are at **significantly higher risk** for complications including **preterm birth**, **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, low birth weight, respiratory distress syndrome, and perinatal mortality. - This is a **universally recognized criterion** for identifying high-risk infants in maternal-child health programs and NICU protocols. - Such infants require close monitoring and specialized care from birth. *Has not taken 100 days folic acid* - Periconceptional **folic acid supplementation** (ideally starting 3 months before conception and continuing through early pregnancy) reduces the risk of **neural tube defects** in the fetus. - While lack of folic acid supplementation increases the risk of congenital anomalies during pregnancy, this historical factor alone does not classify the infant as "at risk" after birth unless an actual neural tube defect or other complication is present. - This is primarily a **pregnancy risk factor** rather than a postnatal infant risk criterion. *Malpresentation during birth* - **Malpresentation** (e.g., breech, transverse lie, face presentation) increases the risk of birth complications such as **birth asphyxia**, **birth trauma**, cord prolapse, and difficult delivery. - While malpresentation is recognized as a risk factor during delivery and such infants may require closer initial monitoring, **preeclampsia** represents a more comprehensive and persistent risk affecting multiple organ systems and long-term outcomes. - In the context of identifying high-risk infants for follow-up programs, maternal preeclampsia is a more significant criterion than malpresentation alone (assuming no birth complications occurred). *Working mothers* - A mother's employment status does not inherently classify an infant as "at risk" from a medical or developmental standpoint. - While **socioeconomic factors** and access to care can impact infant health, simply being a working mother is not a direct medical criterion for defining an infant as high-risk.
Question 5: A baby was vigorously shaken by parents. What do you expect in the baby?
- A. Ruptured spleen
- B. Rib fractures
- C. Sub-dural hematoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Pelvic fracture
Explanation: ***Sub-dural hematoma*** - **Shaken baby syndrome** results from violent shaking, leading to rapid acceleration and deceleration that causes tearing of the **bridging veins** in the brain. - This tearing results in a **subdural hematoma**, which is a collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. *Ruptured spleen* - While possible in severe trauma, a ruptured spleen is less common with shaking alone and more often associated with **direct abdominal impact**. - The mechanisms of injury for splenic rupture typically involve significant blunt force to the abdomen, which is not the primary injury in shaken baby syndrome. *Rib fractures* - Rib fractures are indicators of significant chest compression or **direct impact**, which can occur in child abuse but are not the primary, immediate effect of shaking a baby. - While rib fractures can be a component of child abuse, they typically result from a different type of forceful interaction than shaking. *Pelvic fracture* - Pelvic fractures in infants typically require **high-energy trauma**, such as a fall from a significant height or a motor vehicle accident. - They are highly unlikely to result from shaking alone, as the pelvis is not directly impacted during a typical shaking event.
Question 6: Which of the following findings is LEAST likely to be associated with battered child syndrome?
- A. Subdural hematoma
- B. Skin bruising
- C. Failure to thrive (Correct Answer)
- D. Multiple fractures in different stages of healing
Explanation: ***Failure to thrive*** - While **neglect** can lead to failure to thrive, it is **less directly indicative** of battered child syndrome compared to specific traumatic injuries - Failure to thrive reflects **chronic malnutrition and inadequate care** rather than acute physical abuse - Battered child syndrome primarily involves **physical trauma** (fractures, bruises, head injuries) rather than growth deficiencies - Of all the options, this finding is **LEAST characteristic** of direct physical battering *Subdural hematoma* - **Highly associated** with battered child syndrome, particularly in **abusive head trauma** (shaken baby syndrome) - Results from tearing of bridging veins due to violent shaking or impact - One of the most serious manifestations of physical abuse in children *Skin bruising* - The **most common visible sign** of physical abuse in children - Multiple bruises in **different stages of healing** and in unusual locations (face, neck, trunk, buttocks) are highly suspicious - Pattern bruising (hand prints, belt marks, loop marks) is pathognomonic of abuse *Multiple fractures in different stages of healing* - **Classic radiologic finding** in battered child syndrome - Metaphyseal corner fractures and posterior rib fractures are particularly specific for abuse - Different stages of healing indicate repeated episodes of trauma
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT part of the classic triad of shaken baby syndrome?
- A. Retinal hemorrhaging
- B. Brain swelling
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. CSF Rhinorrhea (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CSF Rhinorrhea*** - **CSF rhinorrhea** (leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose) is not a typical finding in the classic triad of **shaken baby syndrome**. - It usually occurs due to a **fracture of the skull base**, which is possible in severe trauma but not a defining feature of the triad from shaking alone. *Retinal hemorrhaging* - **Retinal hemorrhages** are a hallmark sign of **shaken baby syndrome**, resulting from the violent back-and-forth motion that tears delicate retinal vessels. - Their presence, especially if bilateral and across multiple layers of the retina, is highly indicative of **abusive head trauma**. *Brain swelling* - **Cerebral edema** (brain swelling) is a common and severe consequence of **shaken baby syndrome**, often leading to increased intracranial pressure. - This swelling results from brain injury due to direct trauma, lack of oxygen, and vascular damage. *Subdural hematoma* - A **subdural hematoma** (bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid mater) is a key component of the classic triad. - It occurs due to the tearing of **bridging veins** as the brain moves rapidly within the skull during violent shaking.
Question 8: A child is brought to the casualty department with reports of violent shaking by parents. What is the most likely injury?
- A. Skull bone fracture
- B. Long bone fracture
- C. Subdural haematoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Ruptured spleen
Explanation: ***Subdural haematoma*** - **Violent shaking** in infants (known as **shaken baby syndrome**) causes characteristic neurological injuries due to acceleration-deceleration forces, leading to tearing of **bridging veins** and often presenting as **subdural haematoma**. - The infant's immature brain and weak neck muscles make them particularly vulnerable to these forces, resulting in significant intracranial bleeding without direct impact. *Skull bone fracture* - While possible in cases of severe trauma, **skull fractures** are less specific to violent shaking alone, often requiring a direct impact. - Shaking causes shearing forces on the brain's delicate structures rather than directly fracturing the skull unless there is an impact. *Long bone fracture* - **Long bone fractures**, such as spiral fractures, can occur in child abuse but are typically associated with **twisting or direct impact** rather than the primary mechanism of violent shaking. - While possible, they are not the most immediate or common injury directly resulting from the shearing forces of shaking. *Ruptured spleen* - A **ruptured spleen** indicates significant **abdominal trauma**, usually a direct blow or crush injury, which is not the primary mechanism of injury in violent shaking. - While internal organ damage can occur in child abuse, it's less characteristic of trauma solely from violent shaking compared to intracranial injuries.
Question 9: A 14-year-old victim of sexual assault with 22 weeks gestation has been brought for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). Which of the following statements is true?
- A. One doctor is involved
- B. MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger
- C. MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks
Explanation: ***MTP can be carried out up to 24 weeks*** - The **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**, allows termination of pregnancy up to **24 weeks** for certain vulnerable groups, including survivors of sexual assault and minors. - As a 14-year-old victim of sexual assault, she falls under the category which permits MTP up to 24 weeks. *One doctor is involved* - For pregnancies between 12 and 20 weeks, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is required for MTP. - Beyond 20 weeks up to 24 weeks, as in this case, the opinion of **two registered medical practitioners** is also mandatory. *MTP done in 2nd trimester only when mother's life is in danger* - While danger to the mother's life is a valid reason for MTP, the **MTP Act 2021** has expanded the grounds for MTP in the second trimester (beyond 12 weeks) to include other categories like **sexual assault survivors** and **minors**, even if the mother's life is not immediately in danger. - The primary consideration here is the **vulnerability** of the pregnant person, not solely imminent danger to life. *MTP cannot be more than 20 weeks* - This statement is incorrect as per the **Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021**. - The Act raised the upper gestation limit from 20 to **24 weeks** for specific categories of women, including victims of sexual assault and minors, aligning with the current case.
Question 10: A 10-year-old child presents with persistent restlessness, inattentiveness to studies, and a strong preference for outdoor play. The parents are highly concerned. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. It is a normal behaviour
- B. Needs a change in environment
- C. Comprehensive evaluation by a qualified professional (Correct Answer)
- D. It is a serious illness requiring medical treatment
Explanation: ***Comprehensive evaluation by a qualified professional*** - The combination of **persistent restlessness**, **inattentiveness to studies**, and strong preference for outdoor play at age 10 could indicate a **developmental or behavioral disorder**, such as **ADHD**. - A qualified professional (e.g., pediatrician, child psychologist, psychiatrist) can conduct a thorough evaluation to differentiate between normal childhood behavior and potential underlying conditions, and determine appropriate interventions. *It is a normal behaviour* - While many children are active and enjoy outdoor play, **persistent restlessness** and **inattentiveness affecting studies** are not always normal and can be signs of an underlying issue. - Ignoring these symptoms as entirely normal could delay necessary intervention for conditions that impact a child's development and academic performance. *Needs change in environment* - While environmental factors can influence behavior, assuming that a simple change in environment will resolve persistent restlessness and inattentiveness may overlook a **biological or neurodevelopmental component**. - Environmental changes might be part of a broader management plan, but they are unlikely to be the sole solution without a clear understanding of the root cause. *It is a serious illness requiring medical treatment* - While the symptoms could be indicative of a condition that might require medical intervention, premature labeling as a "serious illness" without an evaluation or directly jumping to medical treatment without a diagnosis is inappropriate. - The first step is always **diagnosis** to determine the presence, nature, and severity of any potential condition.
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