Pharmacotherapy of Anxiety Disorders — MCQs
An SSRI antidepressant, such as fluoxetine, will be prescribed for an adult patient. You should advise him or her that two of the most likely side effects or adverse responses that may eventually occur at therapeutic blood levels are which of the following?
Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
What is the treatment of choice for acute panic attacks?
In which of the following conditions is behavior therapy considered most effective?
Which of the following used as preanesthetic medication causes longest amnesia?
Drug of choice for night terrors:
Match the following: Column A: a. Beta 1 b. Beta 2 c. Beta 3 Column B: 1. Mirabegron 2. Betaxolol 3. Salbutamol
Specific phobias are best classified under which of the following categories?
A medical student presents with recurrent episodes of dyspnea, chest tightness, anxiety, and an impending sense of doom. Upon examination, all systemic conditions are found to be normal. She is then referred to psychiatry. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A nondiabetic, nonhypertensive patient has occasional extra heartbeats. The doctor informed them it is benign, but the patient continues to seek investigations from doctor to doctor. This is a type of:
Pharmacotherapy of Anxiety Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: An SSRI antidepressant, such as fluoxetine, will be prescribed for an adult patient. You should advise him or her that two of the most likely side effects or adverse responses that may eventually occur at therapeutic blood levels are which of the following?
- A. Sexual dysfunction and sleep disturbances (Correct Answer)
- B. Sexual dysfunction and nausea
- C. Headache and diarrhea
- D. Tremor and weight gain
Explanation: ***Sexual dysfunction and sleep disturbances*** - **Sexual dysfunction** is one of the most common and persistent adverse effects of SSRIs, affecting 40-65% of patients and continuing throughout treatment at therapeutic levels [2], [3]. - **Sleep disturbances** (insomnia or altered sleep architecture) can persist during long-term SSRI therapy and are among the eventual side effects patients experience [1], [2], [3]. - Both effects are characteristic of chronic SSRI use and significantly impact patient compliance and quality of life. *Sexual dysfunction and nausea* - While **sexual dysfunction** is indeed very common and persistent, **nausea** is typically a transient side effect that occurs during the first 1-2 weeks of treatment and usually resolves with continued use [2]. - The question specifically asks about *eventual* occurrence at therapeutic levels over time, making nausea less appropriate as it is not a chronic issue. *Tremor and weight gain* - **Tremor** is not among the most common side effects of SSRIs and occurs less frequently than sexual dysfunction or sleep disturbances. - **Weight gain** can occur with some SSRIs (particularly paroxetine), but fluoxetine is actually considered weight-neutral or may even cause weight loss in some patients, making this combination less likely for fluoxetine specifically [1]. *Headache and diarrhea* - Both **headache** and **diarrhea** are common initial side effects when starting SSRIs but typically improve or resolve within the first few weeks of treatment [1]. - These are transient effects rather than eventual persistent side effects that characterize long-term therapeutic use.
Question 2: Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
- A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
- B. SSRIs
- C. Clomipramine
- D. Systematic desensitisation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Systematic desensitisation*** - This therapy is primarily used to treat **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders** where avoidance is a key feature and a clear, single trigger can be identified. - While it involves exposure, the gradual hierarchy and relaxation training are less effective for the complex, intrusive thoughts and compulsive rituals characteristic of **OCD**. *Cognitive behavioral therapy* - **CBT, particularly Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is considered the gold standard psychotherapy for OCD. - It directly addresses the **obsessions** by exposing the individual to feared thoughts or situations and then preventing the ritualistic responses. *SSRIs* - **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** are the first-line pharmacological treatment for OCD due to their efficacy in reducing obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. - They work by increasing the availability of **serotonin** in the brain. *Clomipramine* - **Clomipramine** is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) with potent **serotonergic effects**, making it highly effective in treating OCD, often when SSRIs are partially effective or not tolerated. - It is specifically approved for OCD and is sometimes considered a second-line or augmentation strategy.
Question 3: What is the treatment of choice for acute panic attacks?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- C. Barbiturates
- D. Benzodiazepines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Benzodiazepines*** - Benzodiazepines are the **treatment of choice for acute panic attacks** due to their **rapid onset of action** (within minutes) - They work by enhancing **GABA-A receptor** activity, providing immediate anxiolytic effects - Commonly used agents include **alprazolam, lorazepam, and clonazepam** - While effective acutely, they are not recommended for long-term management due to dependence risk *Incorrect: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)* - TCAs are effective for **long-term prophylaxis** of panic disorder, not acute attacks - They have a **delayed onset of action** (2-4 weeks), making them unsuitable for immediate relief - Significant **anticholinergic effects** and potential cardiotoxicity limit their use *Incorrect: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)* - MAOIs can be effective for panic disorder but are reserved for **treatment-resistant cases** - **Delayed onset of action** (several weeks) makes them inappropriate for acute attacks - Require **dietary restrictions** and have risk of hypertensive crisis with tyramine-containing foods *Incorrect: Barbiturates* - Largely **obsolete** in psychiatric practice, replaced by safer benzodiazepines - **Narrow therapeutic index** with high risk of overdose and respiratory depression - Greater potential for dependence and withdrawal complications - No role in modern management of panic attacks
Question 4: In which of the following conditions is behavior therapy considered most effective?
- A. Panic Attack
- B. Psychosis
- C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) (Correct Answer)
- D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Explanation: ***Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)*** - **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, a type of behavior therapy, is the gold standard and most effective treatment for OCD. - ERP directly targets the **obsessions** and **compulsions** by gradually exposing individuals to feared situations without allowing them to perform their rituals. - OCD shows the **highest response rates** to pure behavior therapy compared to other psychiatric conditions. *Psychosis* - While supportive therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy for psychosis (CBTp) can be helpful, **behavior therapy alone is not considered the primary or most effective treatment** for core psychotic symptoms. - Management of psychosis primarily relies on **antipsychotic medications** to address symptoms like hallucinations and delusions. *Panic Attack* - Behavior therapy and CBT are effective for **Panic Disorder**, but the effectiveness is somewhat lower than for OCD. - Treatment for panic disorder often requires a **combination of behavioral and cognitive techniques** rather than pure behavior therapy alone. - Management typically includes breathing exercises, exposure to physical sensations, and cognitive restructuring. *Generalized Anxiety Disorder* - **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)**, which includes behavioral components, is highly effective for GAD, but the **cognitive elements are essential** for addressing worry and rumination. - Pure behavior therapy (e.g., systematic desensitization) is less effective for GAD compared to OCD, as GAD involves pervasive cognitive distortions that require cognitive restructuring.
Question 5: Which of the following used as preanesthetic medication causes longest amnesia?
- A. Diazepam
- B. Midazolam
- C. Lorazepam (Correct Answer)
- D. Flunitrazepam
Explanation: ***Lorazepam*** - **Lorazepam** has a relatively **long duration of action** and is noted for producing the **longest period of anterograde amnesia** among the benzodiazepines listed, making it effective for preanesthetic medication. - Its slower elimination rate contributes to sustained sedative and amnesic effects, which can be beneficial for patient comfort and anxiety reduction before surgery. *Diazepam* - While **diazepam** provides good anxiolysis and sedation, its amnesic effects are generally **shorter-lived** compared to lorazepam. - It has a long half-life due to active metabolites but its peak amnesic action is not as prolonged as lorazepam. *Midazolam* - **Midazolam** is known for its **rapid onset and short duration of action**, making it ideal for procedures requiring quick recovery from sedation. - Its amnesic effects are significant but wear off more quickly than those of lorazepam due to its rapid metabolism. *Flunitrazepam* - **Flunitrazepam** is a potent benzodiazepine with strong amnesic properties, but it is **not commonly used as a preanesthetic medication** in many regions due to its association with misuse and abuse. - While effective, its amnesic duration is usually considered comparable to or slightly shorter than lorazepam in a clinical context, and its use is restricted.
Question 6: Drug of choice for night terrors:
- A. Tricyclic antidepressant
- B. Meprobamate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Clonazepam (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clonazepam*** - **Clonazepam**, a benzodiazepine, is the **drug of choice** for night terrors due to its ability to suppress Stage 3 and 4 **slow-wave sleep**, where night terrors occur. - Its sedative and anxiolytic effects help to calm the patient and reduce the frequency and severity of these episodes. *Tricyclic antidepressant* - While some **tricyclic antidepressants** (TCAs) have sedative properties, they are generally not the first-line treatment for night terrors. - Their side effect profile and potential to alter other sleep stages make them less suitable than benzodiazepines for this specific parasomnia. *Meprobamate* - **Meprobamate** is an anxiolytic and sedative drug that is largely historical and has been replaced by safer and more effective alternatives like benzodiazepines. - It has a higher risk of dependence and side effects compared to modern treatments for sleep disorders. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is another benzodiazepine, but **clonazepam** is generally preferred for night terrors due to its longer half-life and specific efficacy in suppressing slow-wave sleep. - While diazepam could offer some relief, clonazepam is considered more effective for sustained management of this condition.
Question 7: Match the following: Column A: a. Beta 1 b. Beta 2 c. Beta 3 Column B: 1. Mirabegron 2. Betaxolol 3. Salbutamol
- A. a-2, b-3 ,c-1 (Correct Answer)
- B. a-2, b-1, c-3
- C. a-3, b-2, c-1
- D. a-3, b-1, c-2
Explanation: ***a-2, b-3, c-1*** - This pairing correctly matches **Betaxolol** with **Beta 1 selective** antagonism, **Salbutamol** with **Beta 2 selective** agonism, and **Mirabegron** with **Beta 3 selective** agonism. - **Betaxolol** is a beta-1 selective adrenergic receptor antagonist, primarily used in ophthalmology to reduce intraocular pressure and as an antihypertensive. **Salbutamol** is a selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist used as a bronchodilator in asthma and COPD, causing relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle. **Mirabegron** is a selective beta-3 adrenergic agonist used to treat overactive bladder by relaxing the detrusor muscle. *a-2, b-1, c-3* - This option incorrectly assigns **Mirabegron** to Beta 2. Mirabegron is a **Beta 3 selective agonist**. - It also incorrectly assigns **Salbutamol** to Beta 3. Salbutamol is a **Beta 2 selective agonist**. *a-3, b-2, c-1* - This option incorrectly assigns **Salbutamol** to Beta 1. Salbutamol is a **Beta 2 selective agonist**. - It also incorrectly assigns **Betaxolol** to Beta 2. Betaxolol is a **Beta 1 selective antagonist**. *a-3, b-1, c-2* - This option incorrectly assigns **Salbutamol** to Beta 1 and **Betaxolol** to Beta 3. - **Salbutamol** is a Beta 2 selective agonist, and **Betaxolol** is a Beta 1 selective antagonist.
Question 8: Specific phobias are best classified under which of the following categories?
- A. Mood disorders
- B. Psychotic disorders
- C. Personality disorders
- D. Anxiety disorders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Anxiety disorders** - **Specific phobias** are characterized by marked and persistent fear of a specific object or situation, which falls under the umbrella of **anxiety disorders**. - The core feature is intense anxiety or panic when exposed to the phobic stimulus, leading to avoidance behavior. *Psychotic disorders* - These involve a significant loss of contact with reality, often featuring **hallucinations, delusions**, or disorganized thought and speech. - Specific phobias do not involve such a profound disruption of reality or psychotic symptoms. *Mood disorders* - These are primarily characterized by a disturbance in the person's sustained emotional state, such as **depression (low mood)** or **mania (elevated mood)**. - While anxiety can co-occur with mood disorders, specific phobias are distinct conditions defined by their fear response to specific triggers. *Personality disorders* - These are characterized by **enduring patterns of inner experience and behavior** that deviate significantly from cultural expectations, are pervasive and inflexible, and cause distress or impairment. - Specific phobias are not considered deeply ingrained, pervasive patterns of relating to the world, but rather a focused fear response.
Question 9: A medical student presents with recurrent episodes of dyspnea, chest tightness, anxiety, and an impending sense of doom. Upon examination, all systemic conditions are found to be normal. She is then referred to psychiatry. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Panic disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Depression
- C. Epilepsy
- D. Asthma
Explanation: ***Panic disorder*** - The sudden onset of intense anxiety, accompanied by **physical symptoms** like dyspnea and chest tightness, and a feeling of **impending doom** despite normal systemic findings, is characteristic of a panic attack. - Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks lead to a diagnosis of panic disorder, often with significant **anticipatory anxiety** between attacks. *Depression* - While depression can cause symptoms like fatigue, low mood, and anhedonia, it typically does not present with acute, episodic **panic symptoms** and a sense of impending doom in this manner. - The primary symptoms are usually persistent sadness, loss of interest, and often do not involve sudden, acute physiological arousal of this intensity. *Epilepsy* - Epileptic seizures involve abnormal electrical activity in the brain, often presenting with **motor, sensory, or cognitive disruptions**, sometimes with loss of consciousness. - Although some seizures can have autonomic symptoms or an aura of fear, the constellation of symptoms (dyspnea, chest tightness, impending doom) with a clear psychological component and normal systemic exam points away from epilepsy as the primary diagnosis. *Asthma* - Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by **airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction**, leading to symptoms like dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness. - However, in asthma, physical examination would likely reveal abnormal lung sounds (e.g., **wheezing**), and systemic conditions would not be entirely normal, especially during an exacerbation.
Question 10: A nondiabetic, nonhypertensive patient has occasional extra heartbeats. The doctor informed them it is benign, but the patient continues to seek investigations from doctor to doctor. This is a type of:
- A. Depression
- B. Conversion disorder
- C. Somatoform pain
- D. Illness Anxiety Disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Illness Anxiety Disorder*** - This condition is characterized by **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness**, despite minimal or no somatic symptoms, or an excessive preoccupation if symptoms are present. - The patient's repeated seeking of investigations despite medical assurance of a benign condition aligns with the diagnostic criteria of **illness anxiety disorder**, where reassurance has little effect. *Depression* - While **depressive symptoms** (e.g., low mood, anhedonia) can coexist with health anxieties, the primary driver here is the fear of serious illness rather than pervasive sadness or loss of interest. - Patients with depression typically report a **generalized dysphoria** or lack of energy, which is not the central issue described. *Conversion disorder* - Involves **neurological symptoms** (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are incompatible with recognized neurological conditions and are not intentionally produced. - The patient's concern is about a benign cardiac finding, not the sudden onset of **functional neurological deficits**. *Somatoform pain* - This term is older and has largely been replaced by **Somatic Symptom Disorder with predominant pain**, where psychological factors play a significant role in the onset, severity, exacerbation, or maintenance of pain. - The patient's main concern is about the **implication of a benign symptom** rather than experiencing overwhelming pain itself.
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