UPSC-CMS 2025

239 Questions — Page 23 of 24

All (239)Anatomy (8)Anesthesiology (5)Biochemistry (7)Community Medicine (31)Dermatology (6)ENT (1)Forensic Medicine (3)Internal Medicine (67)Microbiology (2)Obstetrics and Gynecology (29)Ophthalmology (1)Orthopaedics (1)Pathology (9)Pediatrics (15)Pharmacology (28)Physiology (5)Psychiatry (6)Radiology (4)Surgery (11)

Biochemistry

1 questions

Q221

Which one among the following essential amino acids is usually the "limiting" amino acid in most of the pulses?

Community Medicine

7 questions

Q221

What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly? I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces. II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification. III. They survive lesser than the pathogens. IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Q222

The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken : I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mu g folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q223

The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

Q224

Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose?

Q225

In the most widespread calculation of Stillbirth Rate, the numerator is defined as foetal deaths weighing 'X' grams or more at birth, during the year. Which one of the following is the correct value for 'X'?

Q226

While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency, commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response ?

Q227

Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator (ILR) employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level : I. These types of refrigerators are top-opening. II. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of ILRs can be divided into 3 parts. III. The upper part of ILR is cooler compared to the lower part. IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the ILR as they can get damaged. Which of the statements given above are correct?

UPSC-CMS 2025 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 221: What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly? I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces. II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification. III. They survive lesser than the pathogens. IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. II and III
B. I and IV (Correct Answer)
C. I only
D. IV only

Explanation: ***I and IV*** - **Coliforms** are found in abundance in the human intestine and are excreted in large numbers, making their presence a reliable indicator of potential fecal contamination. - They are also relatively **easy to detect** using standard culture methods, which allows for rapid and cost-effective testing of water quality. *II and III* - This statement is incorrect because coliforms generally have **higher resistance** to environmental stresses and **survive longer** in water than many fastidious waterborne pathogens. - If coliforms survived less than pathogens, their absence would not guarantee the absence of more resilient harmful organisms. *I only* - While statement I is correct, it does not fully encompass all the critical reasons for using coliforms as indicators. The **ease of detection** (statement IV) is equally crucial for their practical application. - Relying solely on abundance would make monitoring less efficient without practical and rapid detection methods. *IV only* - While statement IV is correct, it fails to mention the critical aspect of **coliform abundance** in feces, which makes them a meaningful indicator. - The ease of detection alone wouldn't make them suitable if they weren't consistently present in fecal matter.

Question 222: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken : I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mu g folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I and II (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Correct: I and II*** - The **Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS)** program targets adolescent boys and girls for anaemia control - **Statement I is correct:** The program involves supervised weekly administration of **100 mg elemental iron** and **500 μg folic acid** - **Statement II is correct:** Supplements are administered using a **fixed-day approach** (e.g., every Wednesday) to ensure adherence and systematic implementation - Both statements accurately reflect the core interventions of the WIFS program *Incorrect: I only* - This is incomplete as it excludes Statement II, which describes the crucial fixed-day implementation strategy - While the supplementation dosage is correct, the delivery mechanism (fixed day) is equally important *Incorrect: II only* - This misses the essential component of the actual supplementation (iron and folic acid dosage) - The fixed-day approach alone without the supplementation details is incomplete *Incorrect: I and III* - **Statement III is incorrect:** Albendazole 400 mg for deworming is administered **twice yearly (every 6 months)**, NOT every 3 months - While deworming is part of the comprehensive WIFS strategy, the frequency stated in Statement III is inaccurate - Only Statement I is correct in this combination

Question 223: The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

A. All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case.
B. Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination.
C. All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk. (Correct Answer)
D. Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.

Explanation: ***All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk.*** - The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) set a specific target to reduce the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk in all states and Union Territories **by 2027**. - This milestone is a crucial intermediate step towards achieving complete malaria elimination, focusing on significant reduction in disease burden. *All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case.* - Establishing fully functional malaria surveillance is an **ongoing and foundational requirement** throughout the elimination program, rather than a specific target solely for 2027. - While essential for elimination, it's a **continuous process** to monitor and respond to cases, not a single milestone bound to a specific year like 2027 in the context of API reduction. *Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination.* - The initiation of the process for certification of malaria elimination across the entire country is targeted for **2030**, reflecting the final stage of the elimination program. - This step occurs after achieving significant reduction and 0 indigenous cases, not as early as 2027. *Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.* - The ultimate target of **eliminating indigenous malaria cases** and deaths nationwide is set for **2030**, marking complete elimination. - This represents the final goal, with **2027** focusing on the significant reduction of API as a prerequisite.

Question 224: Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose?

A. 1st day of the month
B. 9th day of the month (Correct Answer)
C. 7th day of the month
D. 15th day of the month

Explanation: ***9th day of the month*** - The **Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA)** specifies the **9th of every month** as the day for providing comprehensive antenatal care to pregnant women. - This fixed day ensures that women can reliably access free antenatal health check-ups and necessary services. *1st day of the month* - The 1st day of the month is not designated for the PMSMA check-ups; a specific date was chosen to streamline the program's implementation. - While other health initiatives may occur on the 1st, **antenatal care under PMSMA** is not among them. *7th day of the month* - The 7th day of the month is not the designated date for the **PMSMA antenatal care package**. - No specific national maternal health program utilizes the 7th day for regular check-ups. *15th day of the month* - The PMSMA program does not specify the 15th day for its antenatal care services; the focus is on a consistent, predictable schedule for beneficiaries. - While mid-month check-ups are generally important, this specific initiative uses a distinct date.

Question 225: In the most widespread calculation of Stillbirth Rate, the numerator is defined as foetal deaths weighing 'X' grams or more at birth, during the year. Which one of the following is the correct value for 'X'?

A. 750
B. 1500
C. 1000 (Correct Answer)
D. 500

Explanation: ***1000*** - The international standard for defining a **stillbirth**, for statistical purposes, often uses a cutoff of **1000 grams** or **28 weeks of gestation**. - This weight threshold helps to standardize reporting across different regions and healthcare systems for calculating the **Stillbirth Rate**. *750* - While some classifications might use similar weights for specific research or local definitions, **750 grams** is not the universally accepted weight for stillbirth reporting in the most widespread calculations. - This weight is sometimes used as a lower threshold for viability or extreme prematurity, but not typically for the primary stillbirth definition. *1500* - A weight of **1500 grams** would exclude a significant number of stillbirths that are included under the more widely accepted 1000-gram definition. - This higher threshold would lead to an underestimation of the true stillbirth rate in a population. *500* - A threshold of **500 grams** is often used in the definition of a **fetal death** but not specifically for the widespread calculation of the **Stillbirth Rate**. - Foetal deaths below 1000 grams are often considered early fetal deaths and may be reported separately or not included in the primary stillbirth rate, depending on the specific reporting system.

Question 226: While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency, commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response ?

A. Green
B. Red (Correct Answer)
C. Black
D. Yellow

Explanation: ***Red*** - The **red** category is assigned to patients with **immediate, life-threatening injuries** who have a high probability of survival with prompt medical intervention. - This color signifies the **highest priority** for medical treatment and transport to maximize their chances of survival. *Green* - The **green** category is for patients with **minor injuries** that are not life-threatening and can wait for medical attention. - These individuals are often referred to as walking wounded and can typically self-evacuate or wait for more critical patients to be treated. *Black* - The **black** category is reserved for patients who are either **deceased** or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely, even with immediate medical care. - In a mass casualty situation, resources are generally not allocated to these individuals to prioritize those with a higher chance of survival. *Yellow* - The **yellow** category is for patients with **significant injuries** that are not immediately life-threatening but require definitive medical care within a few hours. - These patients are considered "delayed" and their treatment can be postponed until after red-category patients have been managed.

Question 227: Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator (ILR) employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level : I. These types of refrigerators are top-opening. II. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of ILRs can be divided into 3 parts. III. The upper part of ILR is cooler compared to the lower part. IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the ILR as they can get damaged. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and IV
B. II and III (Correct Answer)
C. III and IV
D. I and II

Explanation: ***II and IV*** - **Statement II is correct**: ILRs can be divided into **3 temperature zones** based on cold air distribution: - **Upper zone** (near door): Warmest area - **Middle zone**: Optimal temperature (2-8°C) for vaccine storage - **Lower zone/floor**: Coldest area with risk of freezing - **Statement IV is correct**: Vaccines should **never be placed directly on the floor** of the ILR as this is the coldest zone where temperatures can drop below 0°C, causing **freeze damage** to vaccines like DPT, Hepatitis B, and TT which are freeze-sensitive. *I and III* - **Statement I is incorrect**: ILRs used at sub-district level in India's Universal Immunization Programme are **front-opening** (not top-opening) refrigerators. Top-opening freezers may be used for ice-pack preparation, but vaccine storage ILRs are front-opening. - **Statement III is incorrect**: The **lower part is cooler** than the upper part, not the opposite. Cold air sinks, making the floor area the coldest zone (prone to freezing), while the upper area near the door is relatively warmer.

Pediatrics

1 questions

Q221

"Small for Date" (SFD) babies, also known as "small for gestational age" babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

Psychiatry

1 questions

Q221

Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with problems or failures? I. Rationalization II. Regression III. Projection IV. Replacement Select the correct answer using the code given below :