Anatomy
1 questionsWhich of the following are congenital abnormalities of the gall bladder? I. The phrygian cap II. Floating gall bladder III. Absence of gall bladder IV. Spigelian gall bladder Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Anatomy UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Which of the following are congenital abnormalities of the gall bladder? I. The phrygian cap II. Floating gall bladder III. Absence of gall bladder IV. Spigelian gall bladder Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, II and IV
- B. II, III and IV
- C. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
- D. I, III and IV
Explanation: **I, II and III** - **Phrygian cap**, **floating gallbladder**, and **absence of gallbladder** are all recognized congenital anomalies of the gallbladder. [1] - These conditions arise from variations in gallbladder development during the **embryonic period**. *I, II and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Spigelian gallbladder** (IV) as a congenital anomaly, while excluding **absence of gallbladder** (III). - The Spigelian lobe is a part of the liver, and **Spigelian hernia** is a distinct condition, not a congenital anomaly of the gallbladder itself. *II, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Spigelian gallbladder** (IV) as a congenital anomaly and excludes the **Phrygian cap** (I), which is a common and benign congenital variation. - The Phrygian cap represents a folding of the gallbladder fundus and is universally recognized as congenital. *I, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Spigelian gallbladder** (IV) as a congenital anomaly and excludes the **floating gallbladder** (II). - A floating gallbladder, due to a long mesentery, is a known congenital anatomical variation that can predispose to torsion. [1]
Internal Medicine
2 questionsThe commonest site of pressure sore is :
Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS)?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: The commonest site of pressure sore is :
- A. Sacrum
- B. Heel (Correct Answer)
- C. Ischium
- D. Occiput
Explanation: ***Heel*** - The **heel** is a common site for pressure sore development, especially in bedridden or immobile patients, due to sustained pressure on the bony prominence. - While less common as the *most* common site compared to the sacrum, it is still very frequently affected and can be equally severe. *Sacrum* - The **sacrum** is the *most common site* for pressure ulcers, particularly in individuals who are bed-bound or spend prolonged periods in a supine position. - This area experiences high pressure when lying on the back due to the body's weight pressing down on the bony prominence of the sacrum [1]. *Ischium* - The **ischial tuberosities** are common sites for pressure sores in individuals who are wheelchair-bound or spend extended periods in a seated position. - Pressure on this area is particularly high when sitting, making it vulnerable to tissue damage. *Occiput* - The **occiput** (back of the head) is a common site for pressure sores in infants, critically ill patients, or individuals who are supine for extended periods and unable to reposition their heads. - This is due to sustained pressure on the bony prominence of the skull against the mattress or support surface.
Question 142: Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS)?
- A. Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features. (Correct Answer)
- B. Venous drainage of the liver is occluded by IVC thrombus.
- C. It principally affects young males.
- D. Quadrate lobe (Segment 4) undergoes hypertrophy.
Explanation: ***Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features.*** - **Budd-Chiari syndrome** is characterized by the obstruction of hepatic venous outflow, leading to increased sinusoidal pressure, liver congestion, and eventually **ascites** and **abdominal discomfort** due to liver enlargement and peritoneal fluid. - The rapid accumulation of **ascites** is a hallmark symptom, often accompanied by hepatomegaly and jaundice. *Venous drainage of the liver is occluded by IVC thrombus.* - While Budd-Chiari syndrome involves obstruction of hepatic venous outflow, the primary site of occlusion is typically the **hepatic veins** themselves, not the **inferior vena cava (IVC)** alone [1]. - Though IVC obstruction can occur, it's not the defining feature of Budd-Chiari syndrome; the key is the involvement of the hepatic veins [1]. *It principally affects young males.* - **Budd-Chiari syndrome** can affect individuals of any age or gender, but it often has a predilection for **young to middle-aged women**, especially those with predisposing conditions like oral contraceptive use or hypercoagulable states. - The clinical presentation is more diverse and not exclusively tied to a specific gender or age group. *Quadrate lobe (Segment 4) undergoes hypertrophy.* - In Budd-Chiari syndrome, typically the **caudate lobe (Segment 1)** is spared from outflow obstruction due to its direct drainage into the IVC, leading to its compensatory hypertrophy. - Other liver segments, including the quadrate lobe (Segment 4), usually experience relative atrophy or normal size compared to the hypertrophied caudate lobe.
Physiology
2 questionsGood measure of systemic perfusion on ABG is:
Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder? I. Reservoir for bile II. Production of bile III. Secretion of mucus IV. Concentration of bile Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Physiology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Good measure of systemic perfusion on ABG is:
- A. Bicarbonate
- B. Lactate and / or the base deficit (Correct Answer)
- C. PCO2
- D. pH
Explanation: ***Lactate and / or the base deficit*** - **Lactate** is a direct indicator of **anaerobic metabolism**, which occurs when tissue oxygen supply is insufficient to meet demand, reflecting poor systemic perfusion. - **Base deficit** (or base excess) quantifies the overall metabolic acid-base status and is sensitive to changes in unmeasured anions like lactate, making it a good marker of **tissue hypoperfusion** and metabolic acidosis. *Bicarbonate* - While bicarbonate reflects the body's primary **buffer system**, changes in bicarbonate can be influenced by both respiratory and metabolic processes and thus are not as specific a marker for systemic perfusion as lactate or base deficit. - A low bicarbonate often indicates **metabolic acidosis**, but it doesn't pinpoint the cause as precisely as lactate, which directly reflects anaerobic metabolism. *PCO2* - **PCO2** primarily reflects the **ventilatory status** and respiratory component of acid-base balance. - While extreme changes can indirectly affect perfusion (e.g., hypercapnia leading to vasodilation), it is not a direct or reliable measure of **systemic tissue perfusion**. *pH* - **pH** indicates the overall acid-base balance but is a **composite measure** influenced by both respiratory (PCO2) and metabolic (bicarbonate, lactate) factors. - It does not specifically isolate **perfusion deficits** as clearly as lactate or base deficit, which directly reflect metabolic responses to tissue hypoxia.
Question 142: Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder? I. Reservoir for bile II. Production of bile III. Secretion of mucus IV. Concentration of bile Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, II and III
- C. I, II and IV
- D. I, III and IV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, III and IV (Correct)*** - The gallbladder **stores bile** produced by the liver, acting as a reservoir (I) until it's needed for digestion. - It **concentrates bile** 5-20 fold (IV) by absorbing water and electrolytes through its epithelium. - The gallbladder epithelium **secretes mucin** (III), which forms a protective mucous layer. - The gallbladder does **NOT produce bile** (II) - this is exclusively a function of hepatocytes in the liver. *II, III and IV (Incorrect)* - This option incorrectly includes bile production (II), which is **not a function of the gallbladder**. - The **liver produces bile**; the gallbladder only stores and concentrates it. - While III and IV are correct functions, the inclusion of II makes this option wrong. *I, II and III (Incorrect)* - This option incorrectly states that the gallbladder produces bile (II), which is a **hepatic function**. - Additionally, it omits bile concentration (IV), which is one of the **primary functions** of the gallbladder. - Only I and III are correct in this combination. *I, II and IV (Incorrect)* - This option incorrectly includes bile production (II) as a gallbladder function. - The gallbladder's actual roles are **storage (I), concentration (IV), and mucus secretion (III)** - not bile production.
Surgery
5 questionsResection of which part of intestine does not significantly affect fluid and electrolyte balance?
Which one of the following is correct regarding splenic artery aneurysm?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient? I. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation II. Exclude hypoglycaemia III. Check for mechanism of injury IV. Check pupil size and response Select the answer using the code given below :
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care ? I. A stands for Airway with cervical spine protection II. B stands for Breathing and ventilation III. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status) Select the answer using the code given below :
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children? I. It is more common in premature boys. II. It should be repaired promptly. III. It is always indirect. IV. It may frequently be transilluminant. Select the answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Surgery UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: Resection of which part of intestine does not significantly affect fluid and electrolyte balance?
- A. Ileum
- B. Proximal jejunum
- C. Distal jejunum (Correct Answer)
- D. Colon
Explanation: ***Distal jejunum*** - The distal jejunum has significant **adaptive capacity** to take over the absorptive functions of other parts of the small intestine if they are resected. - Its resection typically has the **least impact** on fluid and electrolyte balance compared to other segments of the intestine, as critical absorption of most nutrients, water, and electrolytes occurs more proximally or distally. *Ileum* - The ileum is crucial for the absorption of **vitamin B12** and **bile salts**; its resection can lead to **malabsorption** and severe diarrhea. - Loss of bile salt absorption can result in **fat malabsorption** and lead to fluid and electrolyte disturbances. *Proximal jejunum* - The proximal jejunum is the primary site for the absorption of most **nutrients** (carbohydrates, proteins, fats), **water**, and **electrolytes**. - Its resection can lead to significant **malnutrition** and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to widespread malabsorption. *Colon* - The colon is responsible for the final absorption of **water** and **electrolytes**, compacting stool for elimination. - Its resection can severely impair the body's ability to conserve water and electrolytes, leading to **dehydration** and electrolyte disturbances.
Question 142: Which one of the following is correct regarding splenic artery aneurysm?
- A. It is generally multiple in number.
- B. It is caused due to blunt trauma to the abdomen.
- C. It is twice as common in men.
- D. It is most commonly located in the middle third of the splenic artery. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is most commonly located in the middle third of the splenic artery.*** - The **splenic artery** is the most common site for **visceral artery aneurysms**, accounting for approximately 60% of all visceral aneurysms. - These aneurysms are most commonly located in the **middle third (50-60%)** of the splenic artery, followed by the distal third (20-30%) and proximal third (10-20%). - The middle segment's tortuosity and hemodynamic stress may contribute to aneurysm formation. - Though distal aneurysms are more prone to rupture, the **middle third remains the most frequent location**. *It is generally multiple in number.* - **Solitary aneurysms** are more common (60-80% of cases) than multiple aneurysms. - **Multiple splenic artery aneurysms** occur in 20-30% of cases and are associated with conditions like **fibromuscular dysplasia**, portal hypertension, or systemic vasculitis. *It is caused due to blunt trauma to the abdomen.* - **Splenic artery aneurysms** are rarely caused by blunt abdominal trauma. - Most are **degenerative or atherosclerotic** in origin (>60% of cases). - Other etiologies include **fibromuscular dysplasia**, portal hypertension, pancreatitis, and connective tissue disorders. - Blunt trauma typically causes **acute splenic injury** (laceration, hematoma) rather than aneurysm formation. *It is twice as common in men.* - **Splenic artery aneurysms** are approximately **four times more common in women** than in men (4:1 female-to-male ratio). - This female predominance is attributed to **multiparity** (which increases arterial wall stress), hormonal factors, and the association with **fibromuscular dysplasia**.
Question 143: Which of the following statements are correct regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient? I. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation II. Exclude hypoglycaemia III. Check for mechanism of injury IV. Check pupil size and response Select the answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, III and IV
- C. I, II and III
- D. I, II and IV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, II and IV*** - **Primary survey** in trauma management, including head injury, focuses on immediately life-threatening conditions (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure). Ensuring adequate **oxygenation and circulation** (Statement I) is paramount to prevent secondary brain injury. - Exclude **hypoglycemia** (Statement II) is critical because altered mental status due to low blood sugar can mimic head injury and delay appropriate treatment, making it an essential part of the 'D' (disability) assessment. Checking **pupil size and response** (Statement IV) is also part of the 'D' assessment, providing vital information about potential brain stem compromise or intracranial pressure changes. *II, III and IV* - While excluding hypoglycemia and checking pupil response are crucial parts of the primary survey, Statement III, "Check for mechanism of injury," is typically part of the **secondary survey** or initial assessment but not immediately life-saving like ABCD. - The primary survey prioritizes immediate threats to life, and while understanding the mechanism of injury informs subsequent care, it does not directly address a patient's immediate physiologic stability. *I, III and IV* - This option includes checking the mechanism of injury (Statement III) as part of the primary survey, which is generally conducted after the **life-threatening conditions** are addressed. - It omits the critical step of excluding **hypoglycemia** (Statement II), which is an immediate reversible cause of altered mental status that must be ruled out during the primary assessment. *I, II and III* - This option correctly includes ensuring adequate **oxygenation and circulation** (Statement I) and excluding **hypoglycemia** (Statement II) as part of the primary survey. - However, it incorrectly includes checking for the **mechanism of injury** (Statement III) as a primary survey component and omits checking **pupil size and response** (Statement IV), which is an essential part of the 'Disability' assessment in the primary survey for head injury.
Question 144: Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care ? I. A stands for Airway with cervical spine protection II. B stands for Breathing and ventilation III. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status) Select the answer using the code given below :
- A. I, II and III
- B. I, II and IV (Correct Answer)
- C. II, III and IV
- D. I, III and IV
Explanation: ***I, II and IV*** - All statements I, II, and IV accurately describe components of the **ABCDE approach in trauma care**. - **A** is for **Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection**, **B** for **Breathing and ventilation**, and **D** for **Disability (neurological status)**. - These are the core components as per **ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) guidelines**. *I, II and III* - This option is incorrect because statement III is **incomplete and inaccurate**. - In the standard ATLS primary survey, **C stands for Circulation with hemorrhage control**, not just "Control of massive external haemorrhage." - While controlling hemorrhage is a critical part of 'C', the primary focus is on assessing and managing **circulation** (shock, perfusion, bleeding). - Note: ATLS 10th edition introduced **<C> for catastrophic hemorrhage** in tactical settings, but this is a separate step before A, not a replacement for C. *II, III and IV* - This option is incorrect as it omits statement I, which correctly describes **A as Airway with cervical spine protection**, the first and most critical step in trauma management. - Statement III also incorrectly describes what 'C' represents in the ABCDE approach. *I, III and IV* - This option is incorrect because it omits statement II, which correctly identifies **B as Breathing and ventilation**, an essential assessment following airway management. - Statement III is incomplete as it fails to mention that **C primarily stands for Circulation** (with hemorrhage control as one component).
Question 145: Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children? I. It is more common in premature boys. II. It should be repaired promptly. III. It is always indirect. IV. It may frequently be transilluminant. Select the answer using the code given below :
- A. II and III
- B. I, III and IV
- C. I, II and IV
- D. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, II and III*** - **Statement I is correct**: Inguinal hernias are significantly **more common in premature boys**, with an incidence of up to **30% in preterm infants** compared to 3-5% in term infants. Male predominance is marked (6-10:1 ratio). - **Statement II is correct**: Pediatric inguinal hernias should be **repaired promptly** (elective basis) due to the high risk of **incarceration and strangulation**, especially in infants under 1 year where the risk can be as high as 31%. - **Statement III is correct**: All inguinal hernias in children are **indirect hernias**, occurring through a **patent processus vaginalis**. Direct hernias are extremely rare in the pediatric population and represent adult pathology. - **Statement IV is incorrect**: Inguinal hernias are typically **NOT transilluminant** because they contain solid abdominal contents like bowel or omentum. **Transillumination** is a characteristic feature of **hydroceles** (fluid-filled), not hernias. *II and III* - While statements II and III are correct, this option is **incomplete** as it omits Statement I, which is also factually correct regarding the increased incidence in premature boys. *I, III and IV* - Statements I and III are correct, but **Statement IV is false**. Inguinal hernias do **not transilluminate** because they contain bowel or omentum, not fluid. Transillumination distinguishes hydroceles from hernias. *I, II and IV* - Statements I and II are correct, but **Statement IV is false** (hernias are not transilluminant), and Statement III is omitted despite being a fundamental characteristic of pediatric inguinal hernias (always indirect).