UPSC-CMS 2018 Practice Questions

Q: All of the following statements are correct about vasectomy EXCEPT:

It increases the incidence of testicular cancer. ***It increases the incidence of testicular cancer*** - Research has consistently shown **no causal link** between vasectomy and an increased risk of testicular cancer. - The reported incidence of testicular cancer in men who have undergone vasectomy is similar to that in the general population. *No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV) was first developed in China.* - The **no-scalpel vasectomy (NSV)** technique was indeed developed in China by Dr. Li Shunqiang in 1974. - This method involves a smaller puncture incision rather than a traditional scalpel incision, leading to fewer complications. *It is less time consuming than tubectomy* - Vasectomy is generally a **simpler, less invasive, and quicker procedure** than tubectomy (female sterilization). - Tubectomy often requires general anesthesia and a more complex surgical approach, making it more time-consuming overall. *Addition contraception should be used for 3 months after vasectomy* - It takes approximately **3 months or 20 ejaculations** for all residual sperm to be cleared from the reproductive tract after a vasectomy. - Therefore, additional contraception is crucial during this period until a **sperm analysis (semen analysis)** confirms azoospermia (absence of sperm).

Q: Which one of the following statements about male sterilization is NOT true?

It is performed under general anaesthesia. ***It is performed under general anaesthesia*** - **Vasectomies** are most commonly performed in an outpatient setting under a **local anaesthetic**, not general anaesthesia. - The procedure involves minimal discomfort, and the patient remains awake, reducing risks associated with general anaesthesia. *It is safer and less expensive* - **Male sterilization (vasectomy)** is generally considered safer than female sterilization (tubal ligation) due to its less invasive nature. - It is also typically less expensive due to the simpler outpatient procedure and local anaesthesia. *Most men develop antisperm antibodies* - After a vasectomy, a significant number of men (approximately 50-70%) develop **antisperm antibodies**. - These antibodies are usually not clinically significant but can interfere with fertility if a reversal is attempted. *It has a low failure rate* - **Vasectomy** is highly effective, with a very **low failure rate** once confirmed by a negative post-vasectomy semen analysis. - The failure rate is typically less than 1%, making it one of the most reliable forms of contraception.

Q: A 50 year old postmenopausal woman comes with complaints of bleeding per vaginum. Which one of the following investigations is NOT required?

Diagnostic laparoscopy. ***Diagnostic laparoscopy*** - **Diagnostic laparoscopy** is NOT indicated in the routine workup of **postmenopausal bleeding** as it does not allow direct visualization of the **endometrial cavity**, which is the primary site of pathology in PMB. - It is an invasive surgical procedure used to visualize pelvic and abdominal organs **externally** and is reserved for evaluating conditions like **endometriosis**, **pelvic inflammatory disease**, **adnexal masses**, or **ectopic pregnancy**. - The key investigations for PMB focus on evaluating the **endometrium** and **cervix**, not the peritoneal cavity or external surface of pelvic organs. *Hysteroscopy* - **Hysteroscopy** involves direct visualization of the **uterine cavity** and is crucial for identifying and biopsying focal lesions like **polyps**, **submucosal fibroids**, or **endometrial cancer** that can cause postmenopausal bleeding. - It allows for targeted biopsy of suspicious areas that might be missed by blind endometrial sampling. *Pap smear* - A **Pap smear** is essential for screening for **cervical cancer** and **precancerous lesions** of the cervix, which can present as postmenopausal bleeding. - Although it primarily screens the cervix, abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation with colposcopy and biopsy. *Endometrial biopsy* - **Endometrial biopsy** is the **gold standard** for investigating postmenopausal bleeding, as the most common cause is **endometrial cancer** or **hyperplasia**. - It provides histological samples of the endometrium to rule out malignancy and confirm benign causes like **atrophic endometrium**.

Q: Which one of the following is NOT an emergency contraception method?

Norplant. ***Norplant*** - **Norplant** is a brand name for a **subdermal implant** that provides long-term contraception (up to 5 years) and is not used as an emergency method. - Its mechanism involves the continuous release of a progestin, thereby inhibiting ovulation and thickening cervical mucus over an extended period. *Levonorgestrel* - **Levonorgestrel** is a common and effective form of **emergency contraception**, taken as a single dose or two doses within 72-120 hours of unprotected intercourse. - It works primarily by inhibiting or delaying **ovulation** and preventing fertilization, not by inducing abortion. *Intra uterine contraceptive device* - The **copper intrauterine device (IUD)** is the most effective method of emergency contraception, effective up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse. - It primarily prevents implantation by causing a **spermicidal inflammatory reaction** within the uterus. *High dose oral contraceptive pill* - High-dose **combined oral contraceptive pills** ("Yuzpe method") can be used as emergency contraception, taken in two doses 12 hours apart within 72 hours of unprotected sex. - This method utilizes the **estrogen and progestin** in the pills to prevent ovulation and fertilization.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a method of second Trimester abortion?

Intra-amniotic KCl instillation. ***Intra-amniotic KCl instillation*** - Intra-amniotic KCl instillation is **NOT an abortion method** but rather a **feticide procedure** used to induce fetal demise before the actual termination. - It involves injecting potassium chloride directly into the fetal heart or amniotic sac to cause fetal asystole, and **must be followed by another method** (medical induction or D&E) to complete the abortion. - It is used primarily in **late second trimester and beyond** when legally or ethically required to ensure fetal demise prior to expulsion, but is **not a standalone abortion method**. *Hysterotomy* - Hysterotomy is a **surgical method** of abortion that involves making an incision in the uterus (similar to cesarean section) to remove the fetus. - While rarely used today due to **higher maternal morbidity** compared to D&E or medical methods, it **remains a recognized second-trimester abortion method**. - It may be considered in specific situations such as failed medical abortion, cervical pathology preventing D&E, or when other methods are contraindicated. *Mifepristone and PGE1* - This combination is a **standard medical abortion method** for the second trimester. - Mifepristone (antiprogestogen) sensitizes the uterus to prostaglandins, and PGE1 (misoprostol) induces uterine contractions and cervical ripening. - It is **safe, effective, and commonly used** for second-trimester medical termination. *PGE2 analog* - **Prostaglandin E2 analogs** (such as dinoprostone) are established methods for second-trimester abortion. - They induce uterine contractions and cervical ripening, and can be administered vaginally, extra-amniotically, or intravenously. - They are a **standard medical induction method** for second-trimester termination.

Q: In the process of MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) done by suction and evacuation, it was realized that perforation of uterus occurred with cannula. The next step should be:

Laparotomy with exploration of bowel. ***Laparotomy with exploration of bowel*** - **Uterine perforation** during suction and evacuation abortion with a **cannula** (large instrument) carries high risk of bowel or vascular injury and necessitates surgical intervention. - **Laparotomy** (or laparoscopy in stable patients) allows for direct visualization of the injury, assessment of any associated bowel or vascular damage, and repair of the perforation. - Given the mechanism (cannula perforation), the risk of **intra-abdominal organ injury** is significant, warranting exploration. *Manual vacuum aspiration* - This procedure is used for uterine evacuation, not for managing a **uterine perforation**. - Continuing with aspiration after perforation risks aggravating the injury and causing further damage to internal organs. *Complete the evacuation with curette* - Using a **curette** after perforation would worsen the uterine injury and potentially cause damage to intra-abdominal organs. - The immediate concern is the perforation and its sequelae, not completing the abortion via the transcervical route. *Wait and watch* - While **small uterine perforations** from dilators without suspected visceral injury may be managed conservatively with close observation, **cannula perforation** represents a **high-risk mechanism**. - Given the size of the instrument and risk of bowel injury, immediate surgical exploration is required rather than expectant management.

Q: Consider the following statements regarding MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy): 1. Suction and evacuation can be done up till 12 weeks. 2. Medical methods can be used up till 10 weeks 3. Manual vacuum aspiration (MVA) syringe can be used up to 6 weeks Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only. **2 only** - **Medical methods** for abortion, primarily using medications like **mifepristone** and **misoprostol**, are generally recommended and most effective for pregnancies up to **10 weeks of gestation**. - Beyond 10 weeks, the success rate decreases, and the risk of complications increases, making surgical methods more appropriate. *1 only* - **Suction and evacuation**, also known as **vacuum aspiration**, is a surgical method typically performed for pregnancies up to **14-16 weeks** of gestation, not limited to 12 weeks. - After 12 weeks, the procedure may be referred to as D&C (dilation and curettage) or D&E (dilation and evacuation), depending on the gestational age and technique used. *2 and 3* - While statement 2 is correct, statement 3 is incorrect because **Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA)** using a syringe can be safely and effectively used for pregnancies up to **10-12 weeks** of gestation, not just up to 6 weeks. - MVA is a versatile and often preferred method for early pregnancy termination due to its simplicity and effectiveness. *1 and 3* - Both statements 1 and 3 are incorrect in their specified gestational limits. Suction and evacuation can be performed beyond 12 weeks, and MVA can be used beyond 6 weeks, up to 10-12 weeks.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding β-Human chorionic Gonadotropin are NOT correct? 1. It is a glycoprotein hormone. 2. Serum levels increase in pregnancy, germ cell tumors and gestational trophoblastic disease 3. Its levels are same in single and multiple pregnancy 4. Both alpha and beta subunits are unique and not shared with other hormones Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3 and 4. ***3 and 4*** * Statements 3 and 4 are both **incorrect** regarding β-hCG. * **Statement 3 is incorrect:** β-hCG levels are **significantly higher** in multiple pregnancies compared to singleton pregnancies. Twin pregnancies typically show 30-50% higher β-hCG levels. * **Statement 4 is incorrect:** β-hCG shares a **common alpha subunit** with FSH, LH, and TSH. Only the **beta subunit is unique** and provides diagnostic specificity. This is a key concept in understanding glycoprotein hormone structure. *1, 3 and 4* * This option incorrectly includes statement 1 as incorrect. * Statement 1 is **correct** - β-hCG is a well-established glycoprotein hormone with carbohydrate moieties attached to a protein core. * While statements 3 and 4 are indeed incorrect, including the correct statement 1 makes this option wrong. *2, 3 and 4* * This option incorrectly includes statement 2 as incorrect. * Statement 2 is **correct** - serum β-hCG levels are markedly elevated in normal pregnancy, germ cell tumors (seminomas, choriocarcinomas), and gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy). *1, 2 and 3* * This option incorrectly identifies statements 1 and 2 as incorrect when both are correct. * It also omits statement 4, which is incorrect regarding the subunit structure of β-hCG.

Question 1

All of the following statements are correct about vasectomy EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

It increases the incidence of testicular cancer

Answer

No Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV) was first developed in China.

Answer

It is less time consuming than tubectomy

Answer

Additional contraception should be used for 3 months after vasectomy

Question 2

Which one of the following statements about male sterilization is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

It is performed under general anaesthesia

Answer

It is safer and less expensive

Answer

Most men develop antisperm antibodies

Answer

It has a low failure rate

Question 3

Cellulitis is:

Accepted Answer

A suppurative invasive infection of skin and subcutaneous tissues

Answer

Infection caused by Gram negative bacilli

Answer

A nonsuppurative invasive infection of tissues

Answer

Infection caused by anaerobic Streptococci

Question 4

A 50 year old postmenopausal woman comes with complaints of bleeding per vaginum. Which one of the following investigations is NOT required?

Accepted Answer

Diagnostic laparoscopy

Answer

Hysteroscopy

Answer

Pap smear

Answer

Endometrial biopsy

Question 5

Which one of the following is NOT an emergency contraception method?

Accepted Answer

Norplant

Answer

Levenorgestrel

Answer

Intra uterine contraceptive device

Answer

High dose oral contraceptive pill

Question 6

Which of the statements regarding anemia in pregnancy is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

If mother is severely anemic, the fetus is also severely anemic

Answer

Iron deficiency anemia is most common in Tropics

Answer

Faulty dietary habit is one of the factors responsible for anemia

Answer

Mild anemia is most common

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a method of second Trimester abortion?

Accepted Answer

Intra-amniotic KCl instillation

Answer

Hysterotomy

Answer

Mifepristone and PGE1

Answer

PGE2 analog

Question 8

In the process of MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) done by suction and evacuation, it was realized that perforation of uterus occurred with cannula. The next step should be:

Accepted Answer

Laparotomy with exploration of bowel

Answer

Manual vacuum aspiration

Answer

Complete the evacuation with curette

Answer

Wait and watch

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy):

1. Suction and evacuation can be done up till 12 weeks.
2. Medical methods can be used up till 10 weeks
3. Manual vacuum aspiration (MVA) syringe can be used up to 6 weeks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 only

Answer

1 only

Answer

2 and 3

Answer

1 and 3

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding β-Human chorionic Gonadotropin are NOT correct?

1. It is a glycoprotein hormone.
2. Serum levels increase in pregnancy, germ cell tumors and gestational trophoblastic disease
3. Its levels are same in single and multiple pregnancy
4. Both alpha and beta subunits are unique and not shared with other hormones

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Accepted Answer

3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

3 only

UPSC-CMS 2018

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Physiology