INI-CET 2021 Practice Questions

Q: A 6-month-old boy was brought to the casualty with seizures. The pediatrician tries to do CSF sampling. What are the structures punctured by the pediatrician while piercing through the marked structure?

Scalp, dura, arachnoid. ***Scalp, dura, arachnoid*** - The image shows a needle piercing through the **anterior fontanelle**, which allows direct access to the intracranial space. - When accessing the **subarachnoid space** via the fontanelle, the needle would penetrate the overlying **scalp**, then the outer and inner layers of the **dura mater**, and finally the **arachnoid mater** before reaching the cerebrospinal fluid. *Scalp, epicranium, endocranium and dura* - The terms **epicranium** and **endocranium** refer to layers associated with the bone itself, which is largely absent as a solid structure at the fontanelle in an infant. - CSF sampling through the fontanelle bypasses the need to penetrate mature bone layers like epicranium and endocranium. *Scalp synchondral membrane, dura, arachnoid* - A **synchondral membrane** is found between bones that are joined by cartilage, such as at the base of the skull, not typically within the fontanelle itself. - The primary layers to be penetrated at the fontanelle are the soft tissues of the scalp and the meningeal layers. *Pericranium, dura, arachnoid* - The **pericranium** is the dense connective tissue layer that covers the outer surface of the bones of the skull. - While present, it's considered part of the overall scalp layers and is not a separate primary penetration layer in the same context as the meninges for CSF sampling.

Q: A new drug has been introduced into the market which was found to decrease mortality but it does not cure the disease. Which of the following is a true statement regarding prevalence and incidence?

Increase in prevalence. ***Increase in prevalence*** - A drug that decreases mortality without curing the disease means people **live longer with the condition**, thus increasing the duration of disease - **Prevalence = Incidence × Duration**: Since duration increases while incidence remains constant, prevalence increases - More existing cases accumulate over time as fewer patients die from the disease *Decrease in incidence* - **Incidence** refers to the rate at which **new cases** develop in a population - This drug affects survival of existing cases, not the development of new cases - Since the drug neither prevents nor promotes new cases, **incidence remains unchanged** (not decreased) *Decrease in prevalence* - Prevalence would decrease if the drug **cured the disease** (removing people from the diseased pool) or if **mortality increased** - The scenario describes the opposite: decreased mortality without cure, which **increases** prevalence *Increase in incidence* - This would mean more new cases are developing over time - The drug affects **survival** of existing cases, not the **rate of new diagnoses** - Incidence remains unchanged, not increased

Q: What is triage for?

To classify the priority of treatment. ***To classify the priority of treatment*** - **Triage** is the process of sorting patients to determine the **priority** of their treatment based on the **severity** of their condition and the likelihood of recovery, especially when resources are limited. - This system ensures that those who need immediate care most urgently receive it first, maximizing the number of lives saved. *To rehabilitate following a disaster* - **Rehabilitation** focuses on restoring health and functional abilities after an injury or illness, which occurs **post-treatment**, not as the initial classification of need. - This phase of care happens *after* triage has been completed and immediate medical needs have been addressed. *To prepare for a disaster* - **Disaster preparedness** involves planning and training *before* a disaster strikes to mitigate its effects and ensure an effective response. - Triage is a **response mechanism** utilized *during* or *immediately after* a disaster, not a preparatory measure. *To assess the impact of a disaster* - **Impact assessment** involves evaluating the damage, casualties, and overall consequences of a disaster. - While disaster impact assessment helps guide overall response, triage is specifically about **individual patient assessment** and prioritization for medical care.

Q: Which of the following is false about the selection of essential drugs?

Fixed drug combination is preferred over single drugs. ***Fixed drug combination is preferred over single drugs*** - The statement that **fixed-drug combinations (FDCs)** are preferred over single drugs for essential drug selection is false. Generally, **single drugs are preferred** to allow for individual dose adjustments and minimize potential adverse effects from unnecessary components. - FDCs are only considered essential when they offer specific advantages, such as **improved adherence** (e.g., in tuberculosis treatment) or a **synergistic effect** not achievable with individual drugs. *Cost to benefit has to be considered* - This statement is true; the **cost-effectiveness** and **cost-benefit ratio** are crucial factors in selecting essential drugs. - Essential drugs aim to provide the most public health benefit at an **affordable cost**, ensuring access for a broad population. *An adequate safety profile needs to be established* - This statement is true; essential drugs must have a **well-established safety profile** with acceptable risks. - The benefits of the drug must significantly outweigh its potential harms, with minimal serious **adverse reactions**. *Disease prevalence is considered* - This statement is true; essential drugs are selected based on their ability to address the **most prevalent diseases** and health needs of a population. - Prioritizing drugs for common conditions ensures that public health resources are effectively allocated to where they are most needed.

Q: A patient who was diagnosed with epilepsy was put on retigabine TDS. Now phenytoin is being added. Which of the following changes should be made to retigabine?

Increase the dose. ***Increase the dose*** - **Phenytoin** is a potent **enzyme inducer** that induces hepatic enzymes including **UGT (glucuronidation) enzymes**. - **Retigabine** is primarily metabolized by **N-acetylation and glucuronidation** (not significantly by CYP450 enzymes). - Phenytoin induces UGT enzymes, which **increases retigabine metabolism and clearance**, leading to **decreased plasma concentrations**. - To maintain therapeutic levels and seizure control, the **dose of retigabine needs to be increased** when co-administered with phenytoin. *Stop the drug* - There is no clinical indication to completely **stop retigabine** simply because phenytoin is being added, as both can be used concurrently with dose adjustment. - Doing so might lead to a **loss of seizure control** if retigabine was providing effective seizure management. *Stop retigabine and start on carbamazepine* - This is an unnecessary and unindicated change; there is no medical reason to **switch from retigabine to carbamazepine** due to phenytoin addition. - Like phenytoin, **carbamazepine is also a strong enzyme inducer**, so similar drug interactions would occur. *Decrease the dose* - **Decreasing the dose** would be appropriate if phenytoin were an enzyme inhibitor, leading to higher retigabine levels. - Since phenytoin is an **enzyme inducer**, decreasing the dose would further reduce retigabine's therapeutic concentration, potentially leading to **breakthrough seizures**.

Q: A patient with history of ischemic stroke was started on clopidogrel. However, she had another attack of stroke after 6 months. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for the failure of clopidogrel in this patient?

Downregulation of CYP2C19. ***Reduced function/Loss of function of CYP2C19*** - **Clopidogrel** is a **prodrug** that requires activation by **hepatic cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes**, primarily **CYP2C19**, to its active metabolite. - **Genetic polymorphisms** causing **reduced function or loss of function of CYP2C19** (e.g., CYP2C19*2, *3 alleles) result in insufficient conversion of clopidogrel to its active form, leading to **clopidogrel resistance** and increased risk of thrombotic events like recurrent stroke. - These **poor metabolizers** have significantly reduced antiplatelet response to standard clopidogrel doses. *Upregulation of CYP1A1* - **CYP1A1** is involved in the metabolism of various xenobiotics but plays a **minimal role** in clopidogrel activation. - Upregulation of CYP1A1 would not be a primary factor in clopidogrel failure as it is not the main enzyme responsible for its bioactivation. *Downregulation of CYP2E1* - **CYP2E1** is primarily involved in the metabolism of small organic molecules, some drugs, and toxins, and has **no significant role** in the bioactivation of clopidogrel. - Therefore, changes in its expression would not impact clopidogrel's efficacy. *Downregulation of CYP2D6* - **CYP2D6** is a major enzyme involved in the metabolism of many psychoactive drugs, beta-blockers, and opioids, but plays only a **minor role** in clopidogrel activation compared to CYP2C19. - Downregulation of CYP2D6 would not be the primary cause of clopidogrel failure.

Q: A young child presented with mild intermittent upper abdominal pain. X-ray is given below. What is the diagnosis?

Morgagni hernia. ***Morgagni hernia*** - The X-ray shows a **gas-filled lesion** in the **right cardiophrenic angle**, which is characteristic of a Morgagni hernia, where abdominal contents (often colon or omentum) herniate through the foramen of Morgagni. - The mild intermittent **upper abdominal pain** in a child is consistent with the infrequent or non-specific symptoms these hernias can present, as they are often discovered incidentally. *Bochdalek hernia* - **Bochdalek hernias** typically occur posteriorly and laterally, predominately on the **left side**, and are usually identified in the **neonatal period** with severe respiratory distress. - The radiographic appearance would be of abdominal contents (bowel loops, liver, spleen) largely filling the ipsilateral hemithorax, causing significant mediastinal shift, which is not seen here. *Gastric volvulus* - **Gastric volvulus** involves abnormal rotation of the stomach, often presenting with acute symptoms like **epigastric pain, vomiting, and inability to pass a nasogastric tube (Borchardt's triad)**. - Radiographically, it would show a **distended stomach** with an abnormal position, often high in the chest, but without the distinct localized air-filled mass in the cardiophrenic angle. *Eventration of diaphragm* - **Diaphragmatic eventration** is an abnormal elevation of part or all of an intact hemidiaphragm, usually due to muscular hypoplasia. - The X-ray would show a **uniformly elevated hemidiaphragm** with normal continuity, and there would be no discrete air-filled structures above the diaphragm to suggest herniated bowel.

Q: Identify the imaging modality given below.

USG. ***USG*** - The image displays characteristic **gray-scale imaging** with an **echogenic appearance** of tissues, typical of an ultrasound. - Presence of annotations like "10 MHz G 64%" for **frequency and gain**, and "PRC" suggest ultrasound parameters. *Fluoroscopy* - Fluoroscopy provides **real-time X-ray images** and often involves the use of contrast agents, appearing as a dynamic, darker image with high contrast. - The image lacks the distinct bone and air contrast and dynamic motion typical of fluoroscopy. *X-Ray* - X-ray images depict a **static shadowgram** of dense structures like bones as white, and air as black, with sharp delineation. - The image shows a **granular texture** and fluid-filled structures that are characteristic of soft tissue imaging through ultrasound, not X-ray. *MRI* - MRI produces **cross-sectional images** with high soft tissue contrast in multiple planes (axial, sagittal, coronal). - The image shows real-time B-mode ultrasound characteristics with **probe frequency notation**, not the slice-based imaging of MRI.

Q: Double bleb sign seen in early pregnancy is due to?

Yolk sac and amniotic sac. ***Yolk sac and amniotic sac*** - The **double bleb sign** on ultrasound refers to the separate visualization of the **yolk sac** and the **amniotic sac** within the gestational sac. - This sign is a crucial indicator of a **viable intrauterine pregnancy** in the early stages, typically between 5.5 and 6.5 weeks of gestation. *Amnion and chorion* - The **amnion** and **chorion** are membranes that form later in pregnancy and eventually fuse. - While they are distinct structures, their visualization does not constitute the "double bleb sign," which specifically refers to the distinct spaces of the yolk sac and amniotic sac. *Chorion and decidua* - The **chorion** is the outer fetal membrane, and the **decidua** is the modified endometrium during pregnancy. - While both are important structures in early pregnancy, they are not the structures visualized in the double bleb sign. *Twin pregnancy* - A **twin pregnancy** would involve two separate gestational sacs or, in the case of monochorionic-diamniotic twins, two amniotic sacs within one chorion, each containing a fetus. - The double bleb sign is a feature of a **single intrauterine pregnancy** and is not indicative of twins.

Q: Match the following 1. Hirschsprung's disease 2. Posterior urethral valve 3. Choledochal cyst 4. Intussusception A. Jaundice B. Currant jelly stools C. Distended abdomen D. Oligohydramnios

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B. ***Correct Answer: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B*** **Correct Associations:** - **Hirschsprung's disease (1) → Distended abdomen (C)**: Congenital absence of ganglion cells in the distal bowel leads to functional obstruction and subsequent abdominal distension. This is a hallmark presentation in neonates and infants. - **Posterior urethral valve (2) → Oligohydramnios (D)**: Urethral obstruction in utero prevents normal fetal urine output, resulting in decreased amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios). This can be detected on prenatal ultrasound. - **Choledochal cyst (3) → Jaundice (A)**: Congenital dilatation of the bile ducts causes biliary obstruction, presenting with jaundice as part of the classic triad (jaundice, abdominal mass, and pain). - **Intussusception (4) → Currant jelly stools (B)**: Telescoping of bowel causes mucosal ischemia and venous congestion, leading to bloody mucoid stools with characteristic "currant jelly" appearance. This is a pathognomonic feature. *Incorrect: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A* - Incorrectly associates choledochal cyst with currant jelly stools (which is specific to intussusception) and intussusception with jaundice (which indicates biliary pathology). *Incorrect: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C* - Wrongly links Hirschsprung's disease with jaundice instead of its characteristic abdominal distension, and misidentifies intussusception's primary feature. *Incorrect: 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B* - Swaps the associations between Hirschsprung's disease and PUV. Oligohydramnios is specific to urinary tract obstruction (PUV), not intestinal pathology (Hirschsprung's).

Question 1

A 6-month-old boy was brought to the casualty with seizures. The pediatrician tries to do CSF sampling. What are the structures punctured by the pediatrician while piercing through the marked structure?

Accepted Answer

Scalp, dura, arachnoid

Answer

Scalp, epicranium, endocranium and dura

Answer

Scalp, synchondral membrane, dura, arachnoid

Answer

Pericranium, dura, arachnoid

Question 2

A new drug has been introduced into the market which was found to decrease mortality but it does not cure the disease. Which of the following is a true statement regarding prevalence and incidence?

Accepted Answer

Increase in prevalence

Answer

Decrease in incidence

Answer

Decrease in prevalence

Answer

Increase in incidence

Question 3

What is triage for?

Accepted Answer

To classify the priority of treatment

Answer

To rehabilitate following a disaster

Answer

To prepare for a disaster

Answer

To assess the impact of a disaster

Question 4

Which of the following is false about the selection of essential drugs?

Accepted Answer

Fixed drug combination is preferred over single drugs

Answer

Cost to benefit has to be considered

Answer

An adequate safety profile needs to be established

Answer

Disease prevalence is considered

Question 5

A patient who was diagnosed with epilepsy was put on retigabine TDS. Now phenytoin is being added. Which of the following changes should be made to retigabine?

Accepted Answer

Increase the dose

Answer

Stop the drug

Answer

Stop retigabine and start on carbamazepine

Answer

Decrease the dose

Question 6

A patient with history of ischemic stroke was started on clopidogrel. However, she had another attack of stroke after 6 months. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for the failure of clopidogrel in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Downregulation of CYP2C19

Answer

Upregulation of CYP1A1

Answer

Downregulation of CYP2E1

Answer

Downregulation of CYP2D6

Question 7

A young child presented with mild intermittent upper abdominal pain. X-ray is given below. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Morgagni hernia

Answer

Bochdalek hernia

Answer

Gastric volvulus

Answer

Eventration of diaphragm

Question 8

Identify the imaging modality given below.

Accepted Answer

USG

Answer

Fluoroscopy

Answer

X-Ray

Answer

MRI

Question 9

Double bleb sign seen in early pregnancy is due to?

Accepted Answer

Yolk sac and amniotic sac

Answer

Amnion and chorion

Answer

Twin pregnancy

Answer

Chorion and decidua

Question 10

Match the following

1. Hirschsprung's disease
2. Posterior urethral valve
3. Choledochal cyst
4. Intussusception

A. Jaundice
B. Currant jelly stools
C. Distended abdomen
D. Oligohydramnios

Accepted Answer

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Answer

1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Answer

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

Answer

1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

INI-CET 2021

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Pharmacology

Radiology

Surgery