FMGE 2025 Practice Questions

Q: What stage of embryonic development is shown in the following image?

Blastocyst. ***Blastocyst*** - The image shows a structure with a distinct fluid-filled cavity (the **blastocoel**, labeled X), an inner cell mass (**embryoblast**), and an outer cell layer (**trophoblast**), which are the defining features of a blastocyst. - This stage occurs around day 5 post-fertilization and is responsible for implantation into the **endometrium** of the uterine wall, which is depicted superior to the blastocyst in the illustration. *Morula* - A morula is a solid, compacted ball of 16-32 cells (**blastomeres**) that precedes the blastocyst stage; it does not have the large internal cavity shown in the image. - The morula forms around day 3-4 after fertilization, and it is the entry of fluid into the morula that transforms it into a blastocyst. *Ova* - An ovum (plural: ova) is a single, unfertilized female gamete (egg cell). - The image shows a multicellular embryo that is the result of fertilization and several rounds of cell division, not a single cell. *Gastrula* - Gastrulation is the process that follows the blastocyst stage, where the embryo organizes into three primary germ layers: **ectoderm**, **mesoderm**, and **endoderm**. - The structure shown is a pre-implantation embryo and has not yet undergone gastrulation, which is characterized by the formation of the **primitive streak**.

Q: A total of 60 patients were diagnosed with COVID-19. Out of which, 12 deaths were reported. Calculate the Case Fatality Rate?

20%. ***20%*** - The **Case Fatality Rate (CFR)** is calculated by dividing the number of deaths from a specific disease by the total number of confirmed cases of that disease, multiplied by **100** to get the percentage. - Based on the data: (12 deaths / 60 cases) * 100 = **0.20** * 100 = **20%**. *30%* - This result is incorrect; it would correspond to **18 deaths** out of 60 cases, not the reported 12 deaths. - A calculation error yielding **30%** does not align with the standard formula for CFR using the given figures. *40%* - This percentage represents a CFR where **24 deaths** were reported among 60 cases, which is double the actual number of fatalities. - Such a high error suggests a significant misapplication of the **CFR formula**. *10%* - This value is incorrect; **10%** CFR would be obtained if only **6 deaths** occurred (6/60 * 100). - This result significantly underestimates the **Case Fatality Rate** as it is half of the calculated actual rate.

Q: In a normal distribution, the mean value is 82, the SD is 1.5. Calculate the range of two standard deviations?

79-85. ***79-85***- For a **normal distribution**, the range covering two standard deviations (2 SD) is calculated using the formula: **Mean $\pm$ (2 $\times$ SD)**. The $2\sigma$ interval encompasses approximately **95.45%** of the data points.- Calculation: Lower limit $= 82 - (2 \times 1.5) = 82 - 3 = 79$. Upper limit $= 82 + (2 \times 1.5) = 85$. The correct range is **79-85**. *60-68*- This range is highly incorrect as it is centered far below the **mean of 82** and the width (8 units) is too wide for a total of 3 units (2 SD) dispersion. - The lower limit of 60 is over 14 standard deviations away from the mean, indicating it is an outlier range not relevant to the $2\sigma$ calculation. *50-57*- This range is excessively far from the **mean of 82** and its width (7 units) does not correspond to the required 3 units of dispersion needed for $\pm 2$ SD. - Ranges like this would include virtually none of the observations expected in a population with a mean of 82 and a small **standard deviation** of 1.5. *40-49*- This interval is centered around 44.5, which is highly divergent from the actual **mean of 82**, and therefore cannot represent the population's $\pm 2$ SD range. - In a normal distribution, the data is symmetric around the mean; any calculated range must therefore include the mean near its center, which this option fails to do.

Q: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Varicella. ***Varicella (Correct Answer)*** - This is a **live attenuated vaccine** that is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of causing congenital infection, such as **fetal varicella syndrome** - Vaccination should be postponed until the **postpartum period** - If an unprotected pregnant woman is exposed, **Varicella-Zoster Immune Globulin (VZIG)** may be indicated *Influenza (Incorrect)* - The **inactivated influenza vaccine** (injectable form) is **recommended and safe** for all pregnant women, regardless of the trimester - Vaccination protects both the mother and the newborn by reducing the risk of severe **influenza-related morbidity** in the mother - Provides passive antibody transfer to protect the infant during the first 6 months of life *Rabies (Incorrect)* - This is an **inactivated (non-live) vaccine** that is **safe to administer during pregnancy** if post-exposure prophylaxis (**PEP**) is indicated - The necessity of protection against a life-threatening disease like **rabies** outweighs the minimal risks associated with the inactivated vaccine - No contraindication in pregnancy when indicated *TDaP (Incorrect)* - TDaP (**Tetanus, Diphtheria, and acellular Pertussis**) is a **recommended non-live vaccine** given during *every* pregnancy - Ideally administered between **27-36 weeks of gestation** to ensure maximum maternal antibody transfer to the fetus - Provides passive immunity to the newborn against **pertussis** (whooping cough), protecting vulnerable infants

Q: Which of the following conditions is associated with Holman-Miller sign in the CT image given below?

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. ***Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma***- Holman-Miller sign refers to the classic imaging finding of **anterior bowing** of the posterior wall of the **maxillary sinus** due to the aggressive expansion of this benign tumor originating in the **sphenopalatine foramen**.- This highly **vascular** tumor typically affects **adolescent males** and presents with unilateral, recurrent, and severe epistaxis and nasal obstruction.*Maxillary sinusitis*- CT findings usually include non-specific features like **mucoperiosteal thickening**, air-fluid levels, or complete opacification, without significant displacement of the bony walls.- It is an inflammatory condition, caused by infection or allergy, which does not produce the bone displacement characteristic of aggressive local tumor growth like **JNA**.*Nasal polyp*- Nasal polyps arise from the nasal and sinus mucosa (often the **ethmoids**) and cause pressure-induced **bone erosion** or remodeling, but not the specific **anterior bowing** of the posterior maxillary wall.- They are typically associated with conditions such as **allergic rhinitis** or aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease.*Rhinosporidiosis*- This condition is characterized by proliferative, **friable, strawberry-like masses** within the nasal cavity, caused by the organism *Rhinosporidium seeberi*.- Imaging usually shows only soft tissue masses within the nasal cavity or nasopharynx without the extensive **bony displacement** needed to produce Holman-Miller sign.

Q: A patient with CSOM presented to the OPD with seizures. On examination, homonymous hemianopia was present. Identify the condition based on the CT scan given below.

Temporal abscess. ***Temporal abscess*** - The patient's history of **CSOM** (Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media) is a classic risk factor for an **otogenic brain abscess**, with the temporal lobe being the most common site due to its proximity to the middle ear and mastoid. - The clinical signs of **seizures** and **homonymous hemianopia** (from involvement of optic radiations), combined with the characteristic **ring-enhancing lesion** on the CT scan, are pathognomonic for a temporal lobe abscess. *Cerebellar abscess* - A cerebellar abscess would present with signs of **cerebellar dysfunction**, such as **ataxia**, **nystagmus**, and **dysmetria**, which are absent in this patient's presentation. - While also a potential complication of otitis media, the focal neurological deficit of **homonymous hemianopia** localizes the lesion to the cerebrum, not the cerebellum. *Extradural abscess* - An extradural abscess is located between the dura mater and the skull and appears as a **lens-shaped (biconvex)** collection on CT, which is morphologically distinct from the **intraparenchymal, ring-enhancing lesion** shown. - Such an abscess is less likely to cause focal signs like hemianopia unless there is significant mass effect on the underlying brain parenchyma. *Meningitis* - Meningitis involves diffuse inflammation of the meninges and does not typically form a **focal, ring-enhancing mass** on a CT scan; findings are often normal or show diffuse meningeal enhancement. - The presence of a specific focal neurological deficit like **homonymous hemianopia** strongly points towards a localized lesion like an abscess rather than diffuse meningitis.

Q: A girl presents with microcephaly and a high-pitched cry. Which of the following is the most likely chromosomal abnormality?

Deletion. ***Deletion***- The combination of **microcephaly** and a peculiar **high-pitched cry** (often described as 'cat-like') is the hallmark clinical presentation of **Cri-du-chat syndrome**.- Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a **deletion** of the distal part of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-).*Isochromosome*- An **isochromosome** is a structural chromosomal abnormality where an arm is duplicated, resulting in two copies of one arm and none of the other (e.g., often seen in X chromosome abnormalities like **Turner syndrome**).- This type of structural error does not typically result in the specific features of Cri-du-chat syndrome, which require the loss of specific genes on **chromosome 5 short arm**.*Trisomy*- **Trisomy** is the presence of an extra copy of a chromosome (47 total chromosomes, e.g., **Down syndrome - Trisomy 21**).- Syndromes resulting from autosomal trisomies (like Patau or Edwards) present with different constellations of congenital and developmental abnormalities, lacking the pathognomonic **cat-like cry**.*Mosaicism*- **Mosaicism** describes the presence of two or more populations of cells with different genotypes in one individual, often mitigating the severity of major aneuploidies.- While it can occur with some deletions, **mosaicism** is not the primary mechanism or classification for the specific **Cri-du-chat syndrome** which is defined by the **5p deletion**.

Q: A child presents with recurrent Staphylococcus infections. Laboratory examination shows very low levels of immunoglobulins (G, A, M, E), and a low quantity of B cells. There is a normal reaction to environmental antigens on the skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia. ***Bruton's agammaglobulinemia***- This X-linked disease is caused by a defect in the **Bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)** gene, which is essential for B-cell maturation.- The deficiency results in a severe block in B-cell development, leading to **near absence of mature B cells** and consequently, extremely **low levels of all immunoglobulin isotypes** (IgG, A, M, E).*DiGeorge syndrome*- Primary feature is **T-cell deficiency** due to failure of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches, leading to **thymic hypoplasia**; this would typically impair the skin test response. - Although B cell numbers can sometimes be affected, the hallmark is severe T-cell deficiency, and Ig levels are often normal or near-normal, unlike the pan-hypogammaglobulinemia seen here.*Hyper IgM syndrome*- This condition is characterized by a failure in **isotype switching** (often due to defects in **CD40L**), resulting in normal or high levels of **IgM** but very low levels of IgG, IgA, and IgE.- B cells are present in normal counts, distinguishing it from this patient who has very few B cells and very low IgM.*Common variable immunodeficiency*- CVID typically presents later, in adolescence or adulthood, and causes **hypogammaglobulinemia** (low IgG and usually low IgA/IgM).- While B-cell function is impaired, patients usually have **normal B-cell counts**, contrasting with the severe reduction in B cells seen in this child.

Q: Hormone responsible for milk ejection reflex in the image shown?

Oxytocin. ***Oxytocin*** - The image shows a baby breastfeeding, which involves the **suckling reflex**. This reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. - Oxytocin is crucial for the **milk ejection reflex** (or let-down reflex), as it causes the contraction of myoepithelial cells surrounding the alveoli in the mammary glands, expelling milk. *TSH* - Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) is released from the anterior pituitary and its primary role is to stimulate the **thyroid gland** to produce thyroid hormones. - It is involved in regulating the body's **metabolism** and is not directly responsible for lactation. *GH* - Growth Hormone (GH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary and is essential for overall **somatic growth**, particularly of bones and muscles. - While it contributes to mammary gland development, it does not mediate the immediate process of milk ejection during breastfeeding. *FSH* - Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is an anterior pituitary hormone that plays a key role in the reproductive cycle. - It stimulates the growth of **ovarian follicles** in females and **spermatogenesis** in males, and is not involved in lactation.

Q: Based on the provided MRI images of the knee (A and B), which show a well-defined fluid collection anterior to the patella, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Housemaid's knee. ***Housemaid's knee*** - The MRI shows fluid accumulation specifically in the **prepatellar bursa**, which is located anterior to the patella. This finding is the hallmark of prepatellar bursitis. - This condition is colloquially termed **"Housemaid's knee"** as it commonly results from chronic irritation and inflammation of the bursa due to repetitive kneeling. *Subdermal abscess* - A **subdermal abscess** would appear as a collection of pus in the subcutaneous tissue, often with irregular borders and significant surrounding **inflammatory changes (cellulitis)**, which are not the primary findings here. - The fluid collection is well-defined and confined to the anatomical location of the **prepatellar bursa**, not a disorganized subcutaneous collection. *Gout* - Gout typically presents as an acute **intra-articular** inflammation with a large joint effusion. Chronic gout can show characteristic **"rat-bite" erosions** on imaging, which are not visible here. - While gout can cause bursitis, the diagnosis is confirmed by identifying **negatively birefringent urate crystals** in aspirated fluid, and the imaging is less specific than for simple bursitis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic disease causing **synovitis** and **pannus formation**, leading to joint destruction and bone erosions, none of which are seen in the image. - While bursitis can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, it is typically part of a widespread **polyarthritis**, not an isolated finding as shown.

Question 1

What stage of embryonic development is shown in the following image?

Accepted Answer

Blastocyst

Answer

Gastrula

Answer

Morula

Answer

Ova

Question 2

A total of 60 patients were diagnosed with COVID-19. Out of which, 12 deaths were reported. Calculate the Case Fatality Rate?

Accepted Answer

20%

Answer

40%

Answer

10%

Answer

30%

Question 3

In a normal distribution, the mean value is 82, the SD is 1.5. Calculate the range of two standard deviations?

Accepted Answer

79-85

Answer

60-68

Answer

40-49

Answer

50-57

Question 4

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Varicella

Answer

TDaP

Answer

Rabies

Answer

Influenza

Question 5

Which of the following conditions is associated with Holman-Miller sign in the CT image given below?

Accepted Answer

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

Answer

Nasal polyp

Answer

Rhinosporidiosis

Answer

Maxillary sinusitis

Question 6

A patient with CSOM presented to the OPD with seizures. On examination, homonymous hemianopia was present. Identify the condition based on the CT scan given below.

Accepted Answer

Temporal abscess

Answer

Meningitis

Answer

Cerebellar abscess

Answer

Extradural abscess

Question 7

A girl presents with microcephaly and a high-pitched cry. Which of the following is the most likely chromosomal abnormality?

Accepted Answer

Deletion

Answer

Mosaicism

Answer

Trisomy

Answer

Isochromosome

Question 8

A child presents with recurrent Staphylococcus infections. Laboratory examination shows very low levels of immunoglobulins (G, A, M, E), and a low quantity of B cells. There is a normal reaction to environmental antigens on the skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Answer

Common variable immunodeficiency

Answer

Hyper IgM syndrome

Answer

DiGeorge syndrome

Question 9

Hormone responsible for milk ejection reflex in the image shown?

Accepted Answer

Oxytocin

Answer

GH

Answer

TSH

Answer

FSH

Question 10

Based on the provided MRI images of the knee (A and B), which show a well-defined fluid collection anterior to the patella, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Housemaid's knee

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer

Gout

Answer

Subdermal abscess

FMGE 2025

Anatomy

Community Medicine

ENT

Pediatrics

Physiology

Radiology