FMGE 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Apoprotein for chylomicron remnants:

Apo E. ***Apo E*** - **Apolipoprotein E** (**Apo E**) is crucial for the uptake of **chylomicron remnants** and **VLDL remnants** (IDL) by the liver via the **LDL receptor-related protein 1 (LRP1)**. - It acts as a **ligand** for this receptor, facilitating the clearance of dietary fats from the circulation. *Apo A2* - **Apo A2** is a primary apolipoprotein of **high-density lipoprotein (HDL)**, not chylomicron remnants. - Its exact function is not fully understood, but it may modulate the activity of **hepatic lipase**. *Apo C1* - **Apo C1** is found on **chylomicrons**, **VLDL**, and **HDL**, but it is not the primary apoprotein responsible for the uptake of chylomicron remnants by the liver. - It is known to **activate lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)** and may inhibit **cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP)**. *Apo A1* - **Apo A1** is the most abundant apolipoprotein in **HDL** and is essential for its structure and function. - It is a potent **activator of LCAT**, an enzyme that esterifies cholesterol in HDL, which is key for **reverse cholesterol transport**.

Q: Low glycemic index food is:

Has slower absorption. ***Has slower absorption*** - **Low glycemic index (GI)** foods are digested and absorbed more slowly, leading to a gradual rise in blood glucose and insulin levels. - This characteristic is beneficial for managing **blood sugar** and providing sustained energy. *Easily digestible* - **Easily digestible** foods often have a **high glycemic index** because their carbohydrates are rapidly broken down and absorbed. - Low GI foods, by contrast, contain more complex carbohydrates and fiber, making them slower to digest. *Increase glycogen deposits* - While all carbohydrates are eventually converted to **glucose** and can contribute to **glycogen synthesis**, low GI foods do not uniquely or preferentially increase glycogen deposits compared to high GI foods. - Glycogen synthesis is primarily influenced by insulin levels and the total amount of carbohydrates consumed, irrespective of GI. *Increases plasma glucose* - All carbohydrate-containing foods will eventually increase **plasma glucose**, but low GI foods cause a **slower and smaller rise** in blood glucose compared to high GI foods. - They prevent the sharp spikes in blood sugar that are associated with high GI foods.

Q: Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by:

Ticks. **_Ticks_** - Babesiosis is a **tick-borne illness** caused by *Babesia* parasites, primarily *Babesia microti* in North America. - The main vector is the **deer tick** (*Ixodes scapularis*), which also transmits **Lyme disease**. *Rats* - Rats are known reservoirs for various diseases (e.g., **hantavirus**, **leptospirosis**), but they are not the primary vectors for babesiosis. - While *Babesia microti* can infect rodents, **direct transmission** to humans from rats is not the most common route. *Sand fly* - Sand flies are vectors for diseases like **leishmaniasis** and **Bartonellosis**. - They are not associated with the transmission of *Babesia* parasites. *Pigs* - Pigs can be reservoirs for certain zoonotic diseases (e.g., **cysticercosis**, **trichinellosis**). - They do not typically serve as vectors for babesiosis transmission to humans.

Q: Most common subtype of Rodent ulcer is:

Nodular. ***Nodular*** - The **nodular** subtype is the most common presentation of **basal cell carcinoma (rodent ulcer)**, accounting for 60-80% of cases. - It typically appears as a **pearly nodule** with rolled borders and telangiectasias. *Superficial* - The **superficial** subtype is the second most common, accounting for 15-20% of basal cell carcinomas. - It presents as a **red, scaly patch**, often mistaken for eczema or psoriasis. *Pigmented* - The **pigmented** subtype is less common, characterized by the presence of **melanin**, making it appear dark brown or black. - It can be confused with melanoma due to its dark coloration. *Cystic* - The **cystic** subtype is a rare form of basal cell carcinoma, characterized by a **fluid-filled lesion**. - It often appears as a translucent nodule with a soft, jelly-like consistency.

Q: Tobey-Ayer test is done for:

Lateral sinus thrombosis. ***Lateral sinus thrombosis*** - The **Tobey-Ayer test** is used to detect **lateral (transverse) sinus thrombosis**, a serious complication of otogenic infections. - The test involves **lumbar puncture with CSF manometry** while sequentially compressing each **internal jugular vein**. - In a normal response, compression of either jugular vein causes a **rapid rise in CSF pressure** (within 10 seconds) due to venous obstruction, followed by rapid fall on release. - In **lateral sinus thrombosis**, compression of the jugular vein on the **affected side** produces **no rise or delayed/sluggish rise** in CSF pressure, indicating obstruction of venous drainage. - This is distinct from the Queckenstedt-Stookey test, which tests for spinal subarachnoid block. *Ketosis* - **Ketosis** is a metabolic state with elevated **ketone bodies** in blood, detected by urine dipsticks or blood ketone meters. - It has no relation to the Tobey-Ayer test or ENT pathology. *Acantholysis* - **Acantholysis** is loss of intercellular connections between **keratinocytes**, seen in blistering skin diseases like Pemphigus. - It is a histological dermatological finding, completely unrelated to neurological or ENT examination. *Hemoglobinuria* - **Hemoglobinuria** is the presence of free **hemoglobin** in urine due to intravascular hemolysis. - It is detected by urinalysis and has no connection to CSF manometry or lateral sinus assessment.

Q: Single heart sound (S2) is heard in:

Tetralogy of Fallot. ***Tetralogy of Fallot*** - A **single S2 heart sound** is characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot due to the **pulmonary stenosis** (or atresia) which prevents the closure sound of the pulmonary valve from being heard [1]. - The single S2 heard is typically the **aortic component** (A2), as the pulmonary component (P2) is diminished or absent [1]. *Transposition of great vessels* - This condition is often associated with a **loud, single S2** because the aorta arises from the right ventricle, but a split S2 can occur if there is a large patent ductus arteriosus or ventricular septal defect. - The S2 is usually composed mainly of the **aortic component**, which is anteriorly placed. *Ebstein's anomaly* - Characterized by the downward displacement of the **tricuspid valve leaflets** into the right ventricle. - This typically results in a **wide, fixed splitting of S2** and can be associated with a gallop rhythm due to S3 and S4 sounds [2]. *TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection)* - TAPVC typically presents with a **widely split and fixed S2** due to increased blood flow through the pulmonary circulation. - When there is an obstruction, the P2 component can be louder, and a **gallop rhythm** might be present, but a single S2 is not a primary feature.

Q: Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:

Idiopathic Bell's palsy. ***Idiopathic Bell's palsy*** - **Bell's palsy** is the most common cause of **facial nerve palsy**, accounting for approximately 60-75% of cases. - It is an **idiopathic** condition, meaning its exact cause is unknown, although it is often linked to viral infections (e.g., herpes simplex virus). [1] *Mastoid surgery* - **Iatrogenic facial nerve injury** during mastoidectomy is a known complication, but it is a relatively rare cause of facial nerve palsy. - While it can cause significant palsy, the incidence is low compared to Bell's palsy. *Herpes zoster oticus* - This condition, also known as **Ramsay Hunt syndrome**, is a cause of facial nerve palsy associated with a **vesicular rash** (zoster) in the ear canal or on the face. - While it is a significant cause of viral-induced facial palsy, it is less common than idiopathic Bell's palsy. *Chronic suppurative Otitis media* - **Chronic otitis media** can, in rare cases, lead to facial nerve palsy due to persistent inflammation spreading to the facial nerve. [2] - This is a less common etiology than Bell's palsy and would typically present with a history of recurrent ear discharge and hearing loss.

Q: Argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in:

Open angle glaucoma. ***Open angle glaucoma*** - **Argon laser trabeculoplasty (ALT)** is primarily used in **open-angle glaucoma** to improve aqueous humor outflow through the **trabecular meshwork**. - It creates **small burns** in the trabecular meshwork, increasing permeability and lowering **intraocular pressure (IOP)**. *Secondary glaucoma* - This is a broad category of glaucoma caused by other eye conditions or systemic diseases, and the specific treatment depends on the underlying etiology. - While ALT might be considered in some types of **secondary open-angle glaucoma**, it is not a primary or universal treatment for all secondary glaucomas. *Angle recession glaucoma* - This type of glaucoma occurs after blunt trauma to the eye, causing a tear in the **ciliary body** and widening of the **ciliary body band**. - ALT is generally **ineffective** in angle recession glaucoma because the damage to the trabecular meshwork is structural and not amenable to laser modification. *Angle closure glaucoma* - In **angle-closure glaucoma**, the iris blocks the drainage angle, preventing aqueous outflow. - Treatment typically involves **laser peripheral iridotomy** to create a hole in the iris, or surgical procedures, to open the angle, rather than laser trabeculoplasty.

Q: NOT a feature of trachoma:

Chalazion. ***Chalazion*** - A **chalazion** is a **lipogranulomatous inflammation** of a **meibomian gland** and is not directly caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis* infection, though chronic inflammation could theoretically predispose to it. - While chronic inflammation of the eyelids in trachoma can cause various complications, a chalazion is a distinct condition related to meibomian gland dysfunction and is not a direct, defining feature of trachoma. *Entropion* - **Entropion**, the **inward turning of the eyelid margin**, is a severe late complication of trachoma caused by conjunctival scarring and contraction. - This inward turning leads to **trichiasis** (**misdirected eyelashes**), which abrades the cornea. *Corneal opacity* - **Corneal opacity** is a common and serious consequence of chronic trachoma, resulting from repeated **corneal abrasions** by misdirected eyelashes (trichiasis) and chronic inflammation. - This scarring can lead to **severe vision impairment** and **blindness**. *Herbert's pits* - **Herbert's pits** are characteristic depressions on the **limbus** (corneoscleral junction) formed after the resolution of **limbal follicles** in chronic trachoma. - They are a diagnostic sign of past or present trachomatous infection.

Q: Constantly changing refractive error is seen in:

Diabetic cataract. ***Diabetic cataract*** - Fluctuating blood glucose levels in diabetes can cause changes in the **osmolarity of the aqueous humor**, which in turn affects the hydration of the lens and its refractive power. - This leads to a **constantly changing refractive error**, where a person's prescription might change rapidly over short periods of time. *Morgagnian cataract* - This is a type of **hypermature cataract** where the cortex has liquefied, allowing the nucleus to sink within the capsular bag. - While vision is severely impaired, it doesn't typically present with a constantly changing refractive error, but rather a stable, significant vision loss. *Intumescent cataract* - An **intumescent cataract** is a mature or hypermature cataract where the lens has become significantly swollen due to water absorption. - This swelling causes the anterior capsule to stretch, but it results in a fixed and profound vision loss, not a fluctuating refractive error. *Traumatic cataract* - A **traumatic cataract** develops as a result of blunt or penetrating ocular injury, causing damage to the lens fibers. - While the specific type of refractive error can vary depending on the trauma, it typically presents as a stable visual impairment rather than a constantly changing refractive error.

Question 1

Apoprotein for chylomicron remnants:

Accepted Answer

Apo E

Answer

Apo A2

Answer

Apo C1

Answer

Apo A1

Question 2

Low glycemic index food is:

Accepted Answer

Has slower absorption

Answer

Easily digestible

Answer

Increase glycogen deposits

Answer

Increases plasma glucose

Question 3

Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by:

Accepted Answer

Ticks

Answer

Rats

Answer

Sand fly

Answer

Pigs

Question 4

Most common subtype of Rodent ulcer is:

Accepted Answer

Nodular

Answer

Superficial

Answer

Pigmented

Answer

Cystic

Question 5

Tobey-Ayer test is done for:

Accepted Answer

Lateral sinus thrombosis

Answer

Ketosis

Answer

Acantholysis

Answer

Hemoglobinuria

Question 6

Single heart sound (S2) is heard in:

Accepted Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer

Transposition of great vessels

Answer

Ebstein's anomaly

Answer

TAPVC

Question 7

Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:

Accepted Answer

Idiopathic Bell's palsy

Answer

Mastoid surgery

Answer

Herpes zoster oticus

Answer

Chronic suppurative Otitis media

Question 8

Argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in:

Accepted Answer

Open angle glaucoma

Answer

Secondary glaucoma

Answer

Angle recession glaucoma

Answer

Angle closure glaucoma

Question 9

NOT a feature of trachoma:

Accepted Answer

Chalazion

Answer

Entropion

Answer

Corneal opacity

Answer

Herbert's pits

Question 10

Constantly changing refractive error is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Diabetic cataract

Answer

Morgagnian cataract

Answer

Intumescent cataract

Answer

Traumatic cataract

FMGE 2018

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Dermatology

ENT

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology