FMGE 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Hypoglossal nerve supplies all of these muscles except:-

Palatoglossus. ***Palatoglossus*** - The **palatoglossus** muscle is innervated by the **pharyngeal plexus** (composed of contributions from the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves), not the hypoglossal nerve. - It is the only extrinsic muscle of the tongue not supplied by the hypoglossal nerve, and its primary function is to elevate the posterior part of the tongue and narrow the oropharyngeal isthmus. *Styloglossus* - The **styloglossus** muscle is an **extrinsic tongue muscle** that originates from the styloid process and inserts into the side and undersurface of the tongue. - It is supplied by the **hypoglossal nerve** and acts to retract and elevate the tongue. *Genioglossus* - The **genioglossus** muscle is an **extrinsic tongue muscle** that originates from the mental spine of the mandible. - It is innervated by the **hypoglossal nerve** and is responsible for protruding and depressing the tongue, and its bilateral contraction is crucial in preventing airway obstruction during sleep (tongue falling back). *Hyoglossus* - The **hyoglossus** muscle is an **extrinsic tongue muscle** that originates from the hyoid bone and inserts into the side of the tongue. - It is supplied by the **hypoglossal nerve** and acts to depress and retract the tongue.

Q: A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhea is a typical example for:

Common source, single exposure epidemic. ***Common source, single exposure epidemic*** - A contaminated well is a **classic example of a point source (single exposure) epidemic**, as seen in John Snow's famous Broad Street pump cholera outbreak. - People who drink from the contaminated well are exposed to the pathogen at **roughly the same time or over a short period**. - The epidemic curve shows a **sharp rise in cases within one incubation period**, followed by a rapid decline, creating a characteristic **single peaked curve**. - Even though the well remains accessible, each individual's exposure is typically a **discrete event**, not continuous. *Common source, continuous exposure epidemic* - This occurs when the **source remains contaminated and people are repeatedly exposed over an extended period**, such as persistent sewage leakage into a water supply. - The epidemic curve would show a **prolonged plateau** with cases occurring continuously as long as the exposure continues. - Unlike a contaminated well (discrete exposures), continuous exposure involves **ongoing, repetitive contact** with the pathogen source. *Propagated epidemic* - Involves **person-to-person transmission** where the disease spreads through successive generations of cases. - The epidemic curve shows **multiple peaks** or waves as the infection passes from one individual to another. - Waterborne diarrhea from a well is **not transmitted person-to-person** but through a common environmental source. *Slow epidemic* - This is **not a standard epidemiological classification** based on exposure patterns. - While epidemics can vary in speed, this term doesn't describe the **transmission dynamics** relevant to classifying outbreak patterns.

Q: Gold standard method of diagnosing celiac disease is

Small bowel biopsy. ***Small bowel biopsy*** - A **small bowel biopsy** is considered the **gold standard** for diagnosing celiac disease as it directly visualizes the characteristic damage to the intestinal lining. - The biopsy reveals histologic changes like **villous atrophy**, crypt hyperplasia, and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, which are pathognomonic for celiac disease [1]. *Blood picture* - A blood picture (complete blood count) might show **anemia** (often iron-deficiency anemia) due to malabsorption, but this is a non-specific finding and not diagnostic for celiac disease [1]. - It does not provide direct evidence of intestinal damage caused by gluten. *Anti-endomysial antibodies* - **Anti-endomysial antibodies (EMA)** are highly specific for celiac disease, but they are still a serological test, not the definitive diagnostic method. - Serological tests like EMA and **tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibodies** are used for screening and monitoring but require biopsy confirmation. *Biochemical test* - Biochemical tests might show abnormalities related to **malabsorption**, such as low iron, calcium, or vitamin D levels, but these are secondary effects and not diagnostic of celiac disease itself [1]. - These tests indicate nutritional deficiencies but do not identify the underlying cause.

Q: For laser iridotomy which laser is used?

Nd YAG laser. ***Nd YAG laser*** - The **Nd:YAG laser** is the **primary laser used for laser iridotomy** due to its ability to create precise perforations in the iris. - This laser operates with a **photodisruptive mechanism**, generating plasma formation that effectively creates an opening in the iris. - It is the **treatment of choice for angle-closure glaucoma** and pupillary block. *Argon laser* - The **argon laser** was historically used for iridotomy but is now less commonly the primary choice due to its thermal effect causing more inflammation and scarring. - It is sometimes used in **sequential laser iridotomy** (argon first to thin the iris, followed by Nd:YAG to perforate) in cases where the iris is very thick or heavily pigmented. - Also used for **peripheral iridoplasty** and other thermal applications. *CO2 laser* - **CO2 lasers** are primarily used for **tissue ablation** in surgical procedures, particularly on the skin, eyelid lesions, or in general surgery. - They are **not suitable** for precise intraocular procedures like iridotomy due to their infrared wavelength (10,600 nm) and poor penetration through aqueous humor. *Excimer laser* - **Excimer lasers** are primarily used in **refractive surgery** (e.g., LASIK, PRK) to reshape the cornea. - They work by **photoablation** at 193 nm wavelength, precisely removing tissue layer by layer, and are not designed for creating an opening in the iris.

Q: Which of the following statements about tubercular osteomyelitis is NOT true?

Periosteal reaction is characteristic. ***Periosteal reaction is characteristic*** - This statement is **NOT true** for tubercular osteomyelitis; periosteal reaction is generally **minimal or absent** due to the insidious and less florid inflammatory response. - Unlike pyogenic osteomyelitis, which causes significant periosteal new bone formation, tuberculosis typically results in **slow bone destruction** without marked reactive bone changes. *Sequestrum is uncommon* - This statement is **true** because **sequestrum** (a piece of dead bone separated from healthy bone) is less frequently observed in tubercular osteomyelitis compared to pyogenic osteomyelitis. - The **granulomatous inflammation** of tuberculosis tends to cause slow bone necrosis rather than the rapid, liquefactive necrosis that leads to large sequestra. *It is a type of secondary osteomyelitis* - This statement is **true** as tubercular osteomyelitis is almost always secondary to a **primary focus of tuberculosis** elsewhere in the body, typically the lungs [1]. - The infection spreads **hematogenously** to the bone, making it a manifestation of disseminated tuberculosis rather than a primary bone infection [1]. *Inflammation is minimal* - This statement is **true** in the sense that the **acute inflammatory response** in tubercular osteomyelitis is often less pronounced than in pyogenic infections. - While it is a chronic infectious process, the characteristic **granulomatous inflammation** develops over time, and the initial or acute inflammatory signs might be subtle or "minimal" compared to bacterial osteomyelitis [1].

Q: What is the histopathological finding 12 hours after ischemic injury to heart?

Hyper-eosinophilia of myocytes. ***Hyper-eosinophilia of myocytes*** - Within **4-12 hours** of myocardial ischemia, the most characteristic histological finding is the development of **hypereosinophilia** in the sarcoplasm of myocardial cells [1]. - This is due to the loss of **glycogen** and an increase in **cytoplasmic protein binding** to eosin, indicating early irreversible cell injury [1], [2]. *Neocapillary invasion of myocytes* - **Neocapillary invasion** is a feature of **healing** and **repair** processes, usually observed much later, typically days to weeks after the initial injury, to facilitate scar formation [1]. - This process involves the growth of **new blood vessels** into the damaged tissue. *Karyorrhexis of myocytes* - **Karyorrhexis**, the fragmentation of the cell nucleus, is a later stage of necrosis, usually becoming apparent **12-24 hours post-infarction** [1]. - In the initial 12 hours, nuclear changes like **pyknosis** (nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia) might be observed, but karyorrhexis is not prominent [1]. *Coagulation necrosis of myocytes* - While myocardial infarction is characterized by **coagulation necrosis**, the classic histological signs of full-blown coagulation necrosis, such as loss of striations and nuclear changes, become prominent at **12-24 hours and beyond** [1]. - In the first 12 hours, **hypereosinophilia** is the primary early indicator of this necrotic process, preceding the more overt classical features [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 552. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 548-550.

Q: Enteropeptidase enzyme is secreted by:

Duodenum. ***Duodenum*** - **Enteropeptidase** (also known as enterokinase) is a key enzyme primarily secreted by the mucosal cells of the **duodenum**. - Its main function is to activate **trypsinogen** (from the pancreas) into **trypsin**, initiating a cascade of protein digestion. *Ileum* - The ileum is primarily involved in the absorption of **vitamin B12** and **bile salts**. - It does not significantly contribute to the secretion of digestive enzymes like enteropeptidase. *Stomach* - The stomach secretes **pepsin** (to digest proteins) and **hydrochloric acid**, and is involved in initial protein digestion. - It does not produce enteropeptidase, which acts much later in the digestive process. *Jejunum* - The jejunum is a major site for the absorption of **nutrients** like carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. - While it has some brush border enzymes, the primary secretion of enteropeptidase occurs in the duodenum.

Q: Resting membrane potential of nerve fibre is close to isoelectric potential of:

Potassium ions. ***Potassium ions*** - The **resting membrane potential** is primarily determined by the **equilibrium potential of potassium ions** because the membrane is far more permeable to potassium than to other ions at rest. - Due to the high **permeability to K+**, a significant outward flow of potassium ions occurs, making the inside of the cell negative relative to the outside, approaching the **Nernst potential for K+**. *Sodium ions* - The membrane has very low permeability to **sodium ions** at rest, so **Na+ influx** only slightly affects the resting potential. - The **Nernst potential for Na+** is positive, which is opposite to the negative resting membrane potential. *Chloride ions* - While chloride ions contribute to the **resting membrane potential**, their contribution is typically less significant than potassium due to varying membrane permeability in different neurons. - In many cells, chloride ions follow the electrical gradient set by other ions and do not actively determine the resting potential. *Magnesium ions* - **Magnesium ions** play crucial roles as cofactors for enzymes and in neurotransmission but have minimal direct influence on establishing the **resting membrane potential**. - The membrane is largely **impermeable to Mg2+** at rest, and their concentration gradients do not establish the baseline voltage.

Q: Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except?

Colonic polyp. ***Colonic polyp*** - **Colonic polyps** in ulcerative colitis (UC) are often managed with **endoscopic polypectomy** and surveillance; surgery (colectomy) for polyps is typically reserved for those with **high-grade dysplasia** or **colorectal cancer**. - Simple polyps themselves, without high-grade dysplasia or malignancy, do not independently warrant surgical intervention in UC. *Toxic megacolon* - **Toxic megacolon** is a severe and life-threatening complication of UC characterized by rapid **colonic dilation** and systemic toxicity, which carries a high risk of perforation and mortality. - Urgent surgical intervention, often **subtotal colectomy**, is indicated to prevent perforation and manage sepsis. *Colonic obstruction* - Although uncommon in UC, **colonic obstruction** can occur due to strictures, fibrosis, or malignant transformation, causing symptoms like abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. - When medically refractory or associated with significant symptoms or suspicion of malignancy, surgery is often required to relieve the obstruction. *Failure of medical management* - **Chronic medically refractory UC** is one of the most common indications for elective colectomy, accounting for approximately 20-30% of surgical cases. - When patients fail to respond to maximal medical therapy including corticosteroids, immunomodulators, and biologics, or experience steroid-dependent disease with unacceptable side effects, surgical intervention with **proctocolectomy** may be required for definitive management.

Q: Which of these is the best for management of a 3 cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?

PCNL. ***PCNL*** - **Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)** is the gold standard treatment for large renal stones (>2 cm) due to its high stone-free rates in a single procedure. - For a 3 cm renal pelvis stone, PCNL provides the best clearance rate (~95%) with minimal need for repeat procedures. - It involves direct percutaneous access to the kidney, allowing fragmentation and removal of large stone burden efficiently. *ESWL* - **Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)** has limited efficacy for stones >2 cm, with stone-free rates dropping to 50-60% for 3 cm stones. - Multiple sessions are typically required, with increased risk of steinstrasse (stone street) formation and residual fragments. - While non-invasive, ESWL is not the optimal choice for this stone size. *Retrograde pyeloplasty* - This option appears to reference **retrograde endoscopic approaches** (such as retrograde intrarenal surgery - RIRS or ureteroscopy). - While retrograde ureteroscopy can treat renal stones, it is generally reserved for stones <2 cm due to longer operative time and lower stone-free rates for larger stones. - True "pyeloplasty" is a reconstructive procedure for ureteropelvic junction obstruction, not a stone removal technique. *Antegrade pyeloplasty* - This option likely refers to **antegrade endoscopic access** to the renal pelvis. - While antegrade access is used in PCNL, "pyeloplasty" specifically means surgical reconstruction of the UPJ for obstruction, not stone treatment. - Antegrade ureteroscopy alone (without nephroscopy) would be less effective than PCNL for a 3 cm stone.

Question 1

Hypoglossal nerve supplies all of these muscles except:-

Accepted Answer

Palatoglossus

Answer

Styloglossus

Answer

Genioglossus

Answer

Hyoglossus

Question 2

A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhea is a typical example for:

Accepted Answer

Common source, single exposure epidemic

Answer

Propagated epidemic

Answer

Slow epidemic

Answer

Common source, continuous exposure epidemic

Question 3

Gold standard method of diagnosing celiac disease is

Accepted Answer

Small bowel biopsy

Answer

Blood picture

Answer

Anti-endomysial antibodies

Answer

Biochemical test

Question 4

For laser iridotomy which laser is used?

Accepted Answer

Nd YAG laser

Answer

Argon laser

Answer

CO2 laser

Answer

Excimer laser

Question 5

Which of the following statements about tubercular osteomyelitis is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

Periosteal reaction is characteristic

Answer

Sequestrum is uncommon

Answer

It is a type of secondary osteomyelitis

Answer

Inflammation is minimal

Question 6

What is the histopathological finding 12 hours after ischemic injury to heart?

Accepted Answer

Hyper-eosinophilia of myocytes

Answer

Neocapillary invasion of myocytes

Answer

Karyorrhexis of myocytes

Answer

Coagulation necrosis of myocytes

Question 7

Enteropeptidase enzyme is secreted by:

Accepted Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Ileum

Answer

Stomach

Answer

Jejunum

Question 8

Resting membrane potential of nerve fibre is close to isoelectric potential of:

Accepted Answer

Potassium ions

Answer

Sodium ions

Answer

Chloride ions

Answer

Magnesium ions

Question 9

Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except?

Accepted Answer

Colonic polyp

Answer

Toxic megacolon

Answer

Colonic obstruction

Answer

Failure of medical management

Question 10

Which of these is the best for management of a 3 cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?

Accepted Answer

PCNL

Answer

Retrograde pyeloplasty

Answer

ESWL

Answer

Antegrade pyeloplasty

FMGE 2018

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Orthopaedics

Pathology

Physiology

Surgery