Autonomic Nervous System — MCQs
In a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, what is the appropriate preoperative pharmacological management to control hypertension before surgery?
Effects of beta blockers on the heart are all of the following except:
Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily released from the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate in response to a DECREASE in blood pressure?
What is the primary function of the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei?
All of the following are known functions of hypothalamus except
Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement about CSF?
Hippus occurs in which poisoning?
Which of the following anesthetics is known to increase intraocular pressure?
All of the following are true about neuroblastoma except -
Autonomic Nervous System Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: In a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, what is the appropriate preoperative pharmacological management to control hypertension before surgery?
- A. Phenoxybenzamine and propranolol (Correct Answer)
- B. Propranolol
- C. Nitroglycerine
- D. Phentolamine
Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine and propranolol*** - **Phenoxybenzamine** (an **irreversible** non-selective **alpha-blocker**) is initiated first to prevent hypertensive crises during surgery by blocking the effects of catecholamines on blood vessels. - **Propranolol** (a **beta-blocker**) is added after adequate alpha-blockade to control **tachycardia** and arrhythmias, as blocking only alpha-receptors can lead to unopposed beta-adrenergic stimulation. *Phentolamine (short-acting alpha blocker)* - While **phentolamine** is an alpha-blocker, it is typically used for **intraoperative management** of hypertensive crises or for short-term control, not as the primary preoperative preparation. - It is a **reversible** blocker and does not provide the sustained, robust alpha-blockade required for safe preoperative management of pheochromocytoma. *Propranolol (beta-blocker)* - **Beta-blockers** alone should **never be started first** in pheochromocytoma because blocking beta-2 receptors (which mediate vasodilation) in the presence of high circulating catecholamines can lead to **unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction**, causing a dangerous hypertensive crisis. - It is only added after adequate alpha-blockade has been achieved to manage **tachycardia**. *Nitroglycerine (vasodilator)* - **Nitroglycerine** is primarily a **venodilator** and is used to relieve angina or manage acute hypertensive emergencies, not for the chronic preoperative management of pheochromocytoma. - It does not address the underlying pathophysiology of excessive catecholamine release and can lead to reflex **tachycardia**.
Question 2: Effects of beta blockers on the heart are all of the following except:
- A. Decreases duration of systole (Correct Answer)
- B. Decrease in heart rate
- C. May decrease cardiac output initially.
- D. May precipitate heart failure in acute settings.
Explanation: ***Decreases duration of systole*** - Beta-blockers primarily prolong the **duration of systole** by extending the **ejection time** and slowing ventricular relaxation. - They also increase the **diastolic filling time** by reducing heart rate, impacting overall cardiac cycle duration. *Decrease in heart rate* - Beta-blockers block **beta-1 adrenergic receptors** in the heart, leading to a decrease in **sympathetic stimulation** and thus a reduced heart rate. - This effect is beneficial in conditions like **tachycardia** and **angina**, as it reduces myocardial oxygen demand. *May decrease cardiac output initially.* - By reducing heart rate and contractility, beta-blockers can initially decrease **cardiac output**, especially in patients with pre-existing **ventricular dysfunction**. - This effect is often transient, as chronic use can lead to beneficial remodeling and improved efficiency in some conditions. *May precipitate heart failure in acute settings.* - In patients with acutely decompensated heart failure or severe left ventricular dysfunction, beta-blockers can acutely worsen cardiac function due to their **negative inotropic effects**. - Therefore, beta-blockers are typically initiated cautiously at low doses in stable heart failure patients and are contraindicated in acute decompensation.
Question 3: Which part of the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for secreting catecholamines?
- A. Cardiac ganglion
- B. Cervical sympathetic chain
- C. Adrenal medulla (Correct Answer)
- D. Thoracic sympathetic chain
Explanation: ***Adrenal medulla*** - The adrenal medulla acts as a modified **sympathetic ganglion**, directly innervated by **preganglionic sympathetic fibers**. - Upon stimulation, it releases a high concentration of **epinephrine** (adrenaline) and a smaller amount of **norepinephrine** (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream, acting as hormones. *Cardiac ganglion* - **Cardiac ganglia** are parasympathetic ganglia located in the heart, involved in regulating heart rate and contractility via acetylcholine release. - They do not secrete **catecholamines** but rather act as relay stations for parasympathetic innervation. *Cervical sympathetic chain* - The **cervical sympathetic chain** primarily innervates structures in the head, neck, and upper limbs, influencing functions like pupils, salivary glands, and sweat glands. - While it contains sympathetic neurons, its primary role is not the systemic release of **catecholamines** into the bloodstream. *Thoracic sympathetic chain* - The **thoracic sympathetic chain** provides sympathetic innervation to organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities, influencing heart rate, bronchodilation, and visceral blood flow. - Like other sympathetic ganglia, it releases norepinephrine at target organ synapses, but it does not serve as a major endocrine gland for systemic catecholamine release.
Question 4: Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily released from the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate in response to a DECREASE in blood pressure?
- A. Norepinephrine (Correct Answer)
- B. Dopamine
- C. Acetylcholine
- D. Epinephrine
Explanation: ***Norepinephrine*** - **Norepinephrine** is the primary neurotransmitter released by **postganglionic sympathetic neurons** directly onto the heart to increase heart rate and contractility in response to a drop in blood pressure. - It acts on **beta-1 adrenergic receptors** in the sinoatrial (SA) node, atria, and ventricles, leading to increased chronotropy (heart rate) and inotropy (contractility). *Dopamine* - While **dopamine** can have cardiovascular effects, particularly at high doses, it is not the primary neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic nervous system for direct heart rate regulation. - Dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine and epinephrine, but its main physiological roles involve **renal blood flow regulation** and central nervous system functions. *Acetylcholine* - **Acetylcholine** is the primary neurotransmitter of the **parasympathetic nervous system**, which generally acts to **decrease heart rate** (bradycardia) through muscarinic receptors. - It is also released by **preganglionic sympathetic fibers**, but these do not directly innervate the heart to produce the desired effect of increasing heart rate. *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is primarily a **hormone** released from the **adrenal medulla** into the bloodstream, not directly from postganglionic sympathetic nerve terminals to the heart. - Although it has strong effects on beta-1 receptors in the heart, its release is more generalized and slower than the direct neuronal release of norepinephrine.
Question 5: What is the primary function of the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei?
- A. All of the options.
- B. Regulate water balance. (Correct Answer)
- C. Destruction can lead to diabetes insipidus.
- D. Are located in the anterior pituitary.
Explanation: ***Regulate water balance*** - The **paraventricular** and **supraoptic nuclei** of the hypothalamus synthesize **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)**, also known as **vasopressin**. - ADH plays a crucial role in **regulating water balance** by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. - This is the **primary and most fundamental function** of these nuclei. *Destruction can lead to diabetes insipidus* - While this statement is factually true, it describes a **pathological consequence** rather than the primary function. - Destruction of these nuclei impairs ADH synthesis, resulting in **central diabetes insipidus** with polyuria and polydipsia. - However, the question asks for the primary function, not the consequence of destruction. *Are located in the anterior pituitary* - The **paraventricular** and **supraoptic nuclei** are located in the **hypothalamus**, not the anterior pituitary. - These nuclei synthesize hormones that are stored and released by the **posterior pituitary**. *All of the options* - This is incorrect because the anterior pituitary location statement is false. - Additionally, only one option represents the primary function being asked for in the question.
Question 6: All of the following are known functions of hypothalamus except
- A. Temperature regulation
- B. Hypophyseal control
- C. Food intake
- D. Increase in heart rate with exercise (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increase in heart rate with exercise*** - The **hypothalamus** has an indirect role in cardiovascular responses during exercise, primarily through its influence on the **autonomic nervous system** to maintain homeostasis. - However, the primary control of increased heart rate during exercise originates from the **medulla oblongata** and the **motor cortex**, which directly modulates the sympathetic nervous system to increase cardiac output. *Temperature regulation* - The **hypothalamus** contains thermoregulatory centers that monitor and adjust body temperature through mechanisms such as **sweating** and **shivering**. - This function is a fundamental aspect of maintaining **homeostasis**. *Hypophyseal control* - The **hypothalamus** directly controls the **pituitary gland** (hypophysis) by producing releasing and inhibiting hormones that regulate the secretion of pituitary hormones. - This neuroendocrine function is crucial for controlling various **endocrine axes**. *Food intake* - The **hypothalamus** plays a key role in regulating appetite and satiety, with specific nuclei like the **arcuate nucleus** integrating signals related to hunger and fullness. - This control is essential for maintaining **energy balance**.
Question 7: Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement about CSF?
- A. Formed by the choroid plexus in the ventricles. (Correct Answer)
- B. Normally contains no neutrophils
- C. pH is less than that of plasma
- D. Removal of CSF during dural tap can cause a headache due to the change in pressure.
Explanation: ***Formed by the choroid plexus in the ventricles.*** * The **choroid plexus**, located in the ventricles of the brain, is primarily responsible for the production of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**. * Specialized epithelial cells of the choroid plexus filter blood plasma to produce CSF, which then circulates through the central nervous system. *Normally contains no neutrophils* * Normal CSF should contain **virtually no neutrophils**; their presence typically indicates an inflammatory or infectious process, such as **bacterial meningitis**. * While normal CSF doesn't have neutrophils, this option isn't as broadly accurate as the choroid plexus statement because the presence of other cell types like lymphocytes in small numbers is normal. *pH is less than that of plasma* * The pH of CSF is typically **slightly lower than that of plasma** (around 7.31 compared to 7.40), but the statement "less than" is broad and the degree of difference can be variable and is a less defining characteristic than its formation site. * This slight difference in pH is important for regulating **respiration** through chemoreceptors, but it's not the most accurate or fundamental statement about CSF properties. *Removal of CSF during dural tap can cause a headache due to the change in pressure.* * A **post-dural puncture headache** (PDPH) is a well-known complication of a dural tap (lumbar puncture), caused by the leakage of CSF from the puncture site, leading to **intracranial hypotension**, not simply a change in pressure. * This decrease in CSF volume and pressure causes a traction on pain-sensitive structures within the cranium, resulting in a headache that is typically **worse when upright** and relieved by lying down.
Question 8: Hippus occurs in which poisoning?
- A. Aconite poisoning (Correct Answer)
- B. Opioid poisoning
- C. Neuromuscular blocking agent poisoning
- D. Belladonna poisoning
Explanation: ***Aconite poisoning*** - **Hippus**, characterized by alternating **pupillary constriction and dilation**, is a hallmark of aconite poisoning. - This unusual pupil activity results from the **neurotoxic effects** of aconite on the autonomic nervous system. *Opioid poisoning* - Opioid poisoning typically causes characteristic **pinpoint pupils (miosis)** due to parasympathetic overstimulation. - Hippus is not a feature of opioid toxicity. *Neuromuscular blocking agent poisoning* - Neuromuscular blocking agents primarily affect the **skeletal muscles**, leading to **paralysis** but generally do not directly impact pupil size or reactivity. - Pupils usually remain **mid-dilated and fixed** in severe paralysis, but not hippus. *Belladonna poisoning* - Belladonna (atropine) poisoning causes **mydriasis (dilated pupils)** due to its anticholinergic effect, blocking parasympathetic activity. - The pupils are typically fixed and dilated, not exhibiting hippus.
Question 9: Which of the following anesthetics is known to increase intraocular pressure?
- A. Thiopental
- B. Alfentanil
- C. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- D. Propofol
Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - **Ketamine** is known to increase **intraocular pressure (IOP)**, making it generally avoided in patients with **glaucoma** or those undergoing ocular surgery. - This effect is due to its influence on sympathetic nervous system activity and extraocular muscle tone. *Thiopental* - **Thiopental**, a barbiturate, typically causes a **reduction in intraocular pressure**, which can be beneficial in certain ocular procedures. - Its mechanism involves decreasing cerebral blood flow and metabolic rate, indirectly leading to a decrease in IOP. *Alfentanil* - **Alfentanil**, an opioid, generally has **minimal to no significant effect on intraocular pressure**. - Its primary actions are analgesia and sedation, without direct impact on oculomotor tone or fluid dynamics. *Propofol* - **Propofol** is known to **decrease intraocular pressure**, making it a favorable agent for ophthalmic surgery. - This effect is attributed to a reduction in cerebral blood flow and an inhibition of aqueous humor production.
Question 10: All of the following are true about neuroblastoma except -
- A. Cafe au lait spots (Correct Answer)
- B. Opsoclonus
- C. Bone pain
- D. Diarrhea
Explanation: ***Cafe au lait spots*** - **Neuroblastoma** is a **neuroendocrine tumor** derived from **neural crest cells**, often leading to symptoms related to compression or metastasis, but not typically presenting with **cafe au lait spots**. - **Cafe au lait spots** are characteristic of **neurofibromatosis type 1**, a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the **neurofibromin gene (NF1)**, which is distinct from neuroblastoma. *Opsomyoclonus* - **Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome (OMS)**, an **autoimmune paraneoplastic syndrome**, is a known presentation of **neuroblastoma**, especially in younger children. - This syndrome is characterized by **rapid, irregular eye movements (opsoclonus)** and **sudden, jerky muscle contractions (myoclonus)**. *Bone pain* - **Neuroblastoma** commonly **metastasizes to bone** and **bone marrow**, particularly in advanced stages, causing significant **bone pain**. - The presence of bone pain often indicates widespread disease and can be a presenting symptom. *Diarrhea* - **Neuroblastoma** can secrete **vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)**, leading to **severe, watery diarrhea**. - This syndrome is known as **VIPoma syndrome** and is a potential paraneoplastic manifestation of neuroblastoma, particularly abdominal tumors.
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