Cardiovascular System Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscle?

Tetany. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **A. Tetany**. **1. Why Tetany is not a feature of cardiac muscle:** Tetany is a state of sustained muscular contraction caused by high-frequency stimulation. Cardiac muscle is **incapable of tetany** due to its **long absolute refractory period (ARP)**, which lasts almost as long as the entire mechanical contraction (systole). Because the muscle cannot be re-excited until it has started to relax, summation of contractions is impossible. This is a vital protective mechanism that ensures the heart always has time to relax and fill with blood between beats. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. All or none phenomenon:** Cardiac muscle functions as a **functional syncytium** due to gap junctions. If a stimulus is above threshold, the entire myocardium (atrial or ventricular) contracts as a single unit. * **C. Pacemaker potential:** Also known as "pre-potential," this is a characteristic of specialized auto-rhythmic cells (like the SA node). It involves a slow spontaneous depolarization (primarily via $I_f$ "funny" sodium channels) that allows the heart to beat intrinsically. * **D. Length-tension relationship:** This is the basis of the **Frank-Starling Law**. Within physiological limits, an increase in initial muscle fiber length (Preload) leads to an increase in the force of contraction. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **ARP Duration:** In ventricular muscle, the ARP is approximately **250 ms**, compared to only 1–3 ms in skeletal muscle. * **Calcium Source:** Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle relies on **Extracellular Calcium** entering through L-type calcium channels (Trigger Calcium) for Calcium-Induced Calcium Release (CICR). * **Metabolism:** Cardiac muscle is strictly aerobic and has a very high mitochondrial density.

Q: In full term neonates, what causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus?

High pressure O2. **Explanation:** The closure of the **Ductus Arteriosus (DA)** in a full-term neonate is a two-stage process: functional closure (within 10–15 hours) and anatomical closure (by 2–3 weeks). **1. Why "High pressure O2" is correct:** In utero, the DA remains patent due to low fetal oxygen tension and high levels of circulating Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). At birth, the first breath leads to lung expansion and a dramatic rise in the partial pressure of arterial oxygen (**PaO2**). This high-pressure oxygen acts directly on the smooth muscle of the ductal wall, causing **vasoconstriction**. It also triggers a decrease in PGE2 levels and inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, leading to calcium influx and ductal contraction. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Cardiac output:** While neonatal hemodynamics change at birth, cardiac output itself is a result of circulatory changes, not the primary biochemical trigger for ductal constriction. * **B. Prostaglandins:** Prostaglandins (specifically **PGE2**) are responsible for keeping the ductus **open**. A *decrease* in prostaglandins leads to closure; therefore, their presence is not the cause of closure. * **C. Low pressure CO2:** While CO2 levels shift at birth, the primary regulatory stimulus for the ductus is the oxygen tension (PaO2), not the PaCO2. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of choice to close a PDA:** Indomethacin or Ibuprofen (NSAIDs that inhibit prostaglandin synthesis). * **Drug to keep DA open:** Alprostadil (PGE1 infusion), used in duct-dependent cyanotic heart diseases (e.g., Transposition of Great Arteries). * **Prematurity:** The most common cause of a persistent DA (PDA) because premature infants have immature lungs (low O2) and a ductus that is less sensitive to oxygen. * **Remnant:** After anatomical closure, the DA becomes the **Ligamentum arteriosum**.

Q: Second heart sound (S2) occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

Protodiastole. **Explanation:** The **Second Heart Sound (S2)** is produced by the closure of the semilunar valves (Aortic and Pulmonary) at the end of ventricular systole. **1. Why Protodiastole is Correct:** Protodiastole is the very first stage of ventricular diastole, lasting approximately 0.04 seconds. It represents the brief interval between the end of ventricular contraction and the closure of the semilunar valves. As the ventricles begin to relax, intraventricular pressure drops below the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery. This pressure gradient causes a brief reversal of blood flow toward the heart, which snaps the semilunar valves shut, generating the **S2** sound. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Isovolumetric Relaxation:** This phase begins *immediately after* the semilunar valves close. During this stage, all four valves are closed, and ventricular pressure falls rapidly without any change in volume. * **First Rapid Filling:** This occurs after the AV valves open (when ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure). It is associated with the **S3** heart sound, not S2. * **Diastasis:** This is the period of slow ventricular filling. It is the longest phase of the cardiac cycle and occurs before atrial contraction. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **S2 Splitting:** S2 has two components: **A2** (Aortic) and **P2** (Pulmonary). Physiological splitting occurs during inspiration because increased venous return delays P2. * **Fixed Splitting of S2:** A classic sign of **Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)**. * **Hanging-edge effect:** The delay between the crossover of pressure and actual valve closure is what defines the protodiastolic period. * **Duration of Cardiac Cycle:** At a heart rate of 75 bpm, the total cycle is 0.8s (Systole 0.3s, Diastole 0.5s). Protodiastole is the shortest phase of diastole.

Q: Which of the following causes filtration at the arteriolar end of the capillary bed?

Increase in hydrostatic pressure of capillaries. ### Explanation The movement of fluid across a capillary membrane is governed by **Starling’s Forces**, which determine the Net Filtration Pressure (NFP). The formula is: **NFP = (Pc - Pi) - (πc - πi)** #### 1. Why Option B is Correct **Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure (Pc)** is the primary force that "pushes" fluid out of the capillary into the interstitial space. At the **arteriolar end**, the Pc is high (approx. 35 mmHg), which exceeds the opposing oncotic pressure. This high hydrostatic pressure drives **filtration**, allowing water and solutes to move into the tissues. #### 2. Why Other Options are Incorrect * **Option A:** A decrease in hydrostatic pressure would reduce the outward push, favoring fluid retention or reabsorption rather than filtration. * **Option C:** **Capillary Oncotic Pressure (πc)**, exerted by plasma proteins (mainly albumin), is a "pulling" force that keeps fluid inside the vessel. Increasing this would promote **reabsorption**, not filtration. * **Option D:** **Interstitial Oncotic Pressure (πi)** acts to pull fluid out of the capillary. Therefore, a *decrease* in this pressure would reduce the force favoring filtration. #### High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls * **Starling’s Hypothesis:** Filtration occurs at the arteriolar end (Pc > πc), while reabsorption occurs at the venular end (πc > Pc). * **Edema Pathophysiology:** Edema is caused by factors that increase filtration: 1. **Increased Pc:** Heart failure, venous obstruction. 2. **Decreased πc:** Nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis (hypoalbuminemia). 3. **Increased Capillary Permeability:** Inflammation/Sepsis. 4. **Lymphatic Obstruction:** Elephantiasis or post-mastectomy. * **Albumin** is the single most important protein contributing to the plasma oncotic pressure (approx. 25-28 mmHg).

Q: Stimulation of the medial portion of the vasomotor center results in which of the following?

Decreased cardiac output. ### Explanation The **Vasomotor Center (VMC)**, located bilaterally in the reticular substance of the medulla and lower third of the pons, is functionally divided into three distinct areas: the vasoconstrictor area, the vasodilator area, and the sensory area. **1. Why the Correct Answer is Right:** The **medial portion** of the VMC corresponds to the **inhibitory (depressor) area**. When stimulated, it sends inhibitory signals to the lateral (pressor) areas of the VMC. This inhibition results in: * **Decreased Sympathetic Outflow:** Leading to peripheral vasodilation and decreased myocardial contractility. * **Increased Parasympathetic (Vagal) Tone:** Via the nucleus ambiguus and dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus. The net effect of reduced contractility and a lower heart rate is a **decrease in Cardiac Output (CO)**. **2. Why the Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **A & B (Increased Peripheral Resistance & Blood Pressure):** These are functions of the **lateral (pressor) portion** of the VMC. Stimulation of the lateral area increases sympathetic discharge, causing vasoconstriction (increased resistance) and a subsequent rise in blood pressure. * **C (Increased Heart Rate):** Stimulation of the medial area increases vagal activity, which leads to **bradycardia** (decreased heart rate), not tachycardia. **3. High-Yield Facts for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** The VMC is primarily in the **Medulla Oblongata**. * **Sensory Input:** The **Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS)** in the sensory area receives input from the glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) nerves regarding baroreceptor status. * **Neurotransmitter:** The inhibitory signals from the medial area to the lateral area are primarily mediated by **GABA**. * **Baroreceptor Reflex:** An increase in BP stimulates the NTS, which then excites the medial (inhibitory) area to lower BP and heart rate.

Q: Reynolds number describes the relationship between all of the following, EXCEPT:

Direction of flow. **Explanation:** The **Reynolds number (Re)** is a dimensionless quantity used in fluid dynamics to predict whether blood flow is **laminar** (silent, streamlined) or **turbulent** (noisy, chaotic). It is mathematically expressed by the formula: $$Re = \frac{\rho \cdot v \cdot d}{\eta}$$ Where: * **$\rho$ (Rho):** Density of the fluid * **$v$:** Velocity of flow * **$d$:** Diameter of the vessel * **$\eta$ (Eta):** Viscosity of the fluid **Why "Direction of flow" is the correct answer:** The Reynolds number determines the **nature** or **type** of flow (laminar vs. turbulent) based on physical properties and velocity. It does not provide information regarding the vector or direction in which the fluid is moving. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Viscosity:** Inversely proportional to Re. A decrease in viscosity (e.g., severe anemia) increases Re, predisposing to turbulence. * **B. Density:** Directly proportional to Re. Higher density increases the inertial forces of the fluid. * **C. Velocity:** Directly proportional to Re. This is the most dynamic variable; as velocity increases (e.g., during exercise), flow is more likely to become turbulent. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Critical Threshold:** If $Re 3000$, flow is turbulent. * **Anemia & Murmurs:** In anemia, blood viscosity decreases ($\downarrow \eta$), leading to an increased Reynolds number. This causes functional "hemic" murmurs due to turbulent flow. * **Bruits:** Turbulence in large arteries (like the carotid) caused by narrowing (decreased $d$ but significantly increased $v$) creates sounds called bruits. * **Korotkoff Sounds:** These sounds heard during BP measurement are a result of turbulent flow created by the partial occlusion of the brachial artery.

Q: Which of the following best describes the Anrep effect?

Increased afterload increases cardiac contractility. ### Explanation The **Anrep effect** is an intrinsic autoregulation mechanism of the heart where an **increase in afterload** (e.g., a sudden rise in aortic pressure) leads to a gradual **increase in myocardial contractility** (inotropism). #### 1. Why the Correct Answer is Right When afterload increases, the left ventricle initially cannot eject the full stroke volume, leading to an increase in end-systolic volume. This stretches the myocardial fibers (Frank-Starling mechanism). However, over the next 1–2 minutes, a secondary response occurs: the **Anrep effect**. * **Mechanism:** The increased wall tension activates stretch-activated sodium-hydrogen exchangers ($NHE-1$). This leads to an accumulation of intracellular $Na^+$, which subsequently slows the $Na^+/Ca^{2+}$ exchanger ($NCX$). The resulting increase in **intracellular calcium** levels enhances contractility, allowing the heart to maintain stroke volume despite the higher pressure. #### 2. Why Other Options are Wrong * **Option A:** Increased preload actually *increases* contractility (Frank-Starling Law), not decreases it. * **Option C & D:** These options confuse contractility (systolic function) with relaxation (diastolic function). While the **Bowditch effect** (Treppe phenomenon) and Anrep effect deal with inotropy, they are not primarily defined by changes in relaxation phases. #### 3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG * **Frank-Starling vs. Anrep:** Frank-Starling is an **instantaneous** response to preload (heterometric autoregulation). The Anrep effect is a **delayed** response to afterload (homeometric autoregulation). * **Bowditch Effect (Treppe Phenomenon):** An increase in heart rate leads to increased contractility due to the inability of $Na^+/K^+$ ATPase to keep up, leading to calcium accumulation. * **Key Mediator:** Remember that the Anrep effect is mediated by **intracellular Calcium** secondary to $Na^+/H^+$ exchange.

Q: Endothelial-derived relaxing factor is associated with which of the following?

nNOS. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **nNOS (neuronal Nitric Oxide Synthase)**. **Endothelial-derived relaxing factor (EDRF)** is now known to be **Nitric Oxide (NO)** [1]. NO is a potent vasodilator synthesized from L-arginine by the enzyme Nitric Oxide Synthase (NOS) [1]. There are three isoforms of this enzyme: eNOS (endothelial), nNOS (neuronal), and iNOS (inducible). In neuroanatomy and physiology, **nNOS** is responsible for producing NO that acts as a retrograde neurotransmitter. It is closely associated with EDRF because both utilize the same biochemical pathway—activating **guanylyl cyclase** to increase **cGMP** levels, leading to smooth muscle relaxation or synaptic modulation [1]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Ras (A):** A family of proteins involved in transmitting signals within cells (G-protein molecular switches), primarily associated with cell growth and differentiation. Mutations are common in cancers. * **C-myc (B):** A regulator gene and proto-oncogene that codes for a transcription factor. It plays a role in cell cycle progression and apoptosis, not vasodilation. * **Bcl (C):** Refers to the Bcl-2 family of proteins which are key regulators of **apoptosis** (programmed cell death). Bcl-2 is anti-apoptotic, while Bax is pro-apoptotic. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** NO → activates Soluble Guanylyl Cyclase → ↑ cGMP → Protein Kinase G → Dephosphorylation of Myosin Light Chain → Vasodilation [1]. * **Nitroglycerin** works by being converted into NO, mimicking EDRF to treat angina [1]. * **Sildenafil (Viagra)** inhibits Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5), preventing the breakdown of cGMP, thereby prolonging the effect of NO/EDRF [1]. * **nNOS location:** Specifically found in the postsynaptic density of neurons, often linked to NMDA receptors.

Question 1

Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscle?

Accepted Answer

Tetany

Answer

All or none phenomenon

Answer

Pacemaker potential

Answer

Length-tension relationship

Question 2

The region of the myocardium most prone to infarction is:

Accepted Answer

Left ventricular subendocardial

Answer

Right ventricular epicardial

Answer

Left ventricular epicardial

Answer

Right ventricular subendocardial

Question 3

In full term neonates, what causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus?

Accepted Answer

High pressure O2

Answer

Cardiac output

Answer

Prostaglandins

Answer

Low pressure CO2

Question 4

Second heart sound (S2) occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

Accepted Answer

Protodiastole

Answer

Isovolumetric relaxation

Answer

First rapid filling

Answer

Diastasis

Question 5

Which of the following causes filtration at the arteriolar end of the capillary bed?

Accepted Answer

Increase in hydrostatic pressure of capillaries

Answer

Decrease in hydrostatic pressure of capillaries

Answer

Increase in oncotic pressure of capillaries

Answer

Decrease in oncotic pressure of the interstitium

Question 6

Stimulation of the medial portion of the vasomotor center results in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Decreased cardiac output

Answer

Increased peripheral resistance

Answer

Increased blood pressure

Answer

Increased heart rate

Question 7

Reynolds number describes the relationship between all of the following, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Direction of flow

Answer

Viscosity of fluid

Answer

Density of fluid

Answer

Velocity of flow

Question 8

Which of the following best describes the Anrep effect?

Accepted Answer

Increased afterload increases cardiac contractility

Answer

Increased preload decreases cardiac contractility

Answer

Increased preload decreases cardiac relaxation

Answer

Decreased afterload decreases cardiac relaxation

Question 9

Which among the following is a false statement about fetal circulation?

Accepted Answer

Blood in the inferior vena cava has lower oxygen concentration compared to the superior vena cava

Answer

Ductus venosus receives blood with high oxygen saturation

Answer

Pressure in the right and left ventricles are equal

Answer

Brain receives blood with high oxygen saturation

Question 10

Endothelial-derived relaxing factor is associated with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

nNOS

Answer

Ras

Answer

C-myc

Answer

Bcl

Cardiovascular System — MCQs

Cardiovascular System — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?