Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease — MCQs
The drug used in steroid-refractory acute severe ulcerative colitis is:
Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect.
All of the following are true about ulcerative colitis except:
What is the mechanism of action of Bevacizumab?
A 40-year-old woman with Crohn's disease reports multiple bowel movements with frequent stools. She was previously treated with a mesalamine derivative "Pentasa" and in the latest episode of the disease flare-up, she didn't tolerate the oral steroid therapy with budesonide. What is the next appropriate step in her treatment?
Which of the following is an H2 receptor antagonist used as an anti-ulcer drug?
What is the definition of persistent diarrhea in infants based on duration?
Pelvic abscess can present with all symptoms except:
What is the mechanism of action of Tegaserod?
A new drug has been introduced into the market which was found to decrease mortality but it does not cure the disease. Which of the following is a true statement regarding prevalence and incidence?
Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: The drug used in steroid-refractory acute severe ulcerative colitis is:
- A. Steroids
- B. Infliximab
- C. Cyclosporine (Correct Answer)
- D. Sulfasalazine
Explanation: ***Cyclosporine*** - **Cyclosporine** is an effective **calcineurin inhibitor** used in cases of **acute severe ulcerative colitis** that are refractory to steroid therapy [1]. - It acts by suppressing the immune system and reducing inflammation in the colon, thereby preventing colectomy [1]. *Sulfasalazine* - **Sulfasalazine** is an **aminosalicylate** commonly used for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis, particularly for maintaining remission [1]. - It is not considered a primary treatment for **acute severe, steroid-refractory** disease [1]. *Steroids* - The question explicitly states "steroid-refractory," meaning the patient has already failed **steroid therapy** [1]. - Therefore, using **steroids** again as the primary intervention for this specific clinical scenario would not be appropriate. *Infliximab* - **Infliximab**, an **anti-TNF-α agent**, is also used in steroid-refractory acute severe ulcerative colitis [1]. - However, **cyclosporine** has a **more rapid onset of action** which makes it a preferred initial option in severe cases; Infliximab is often considered after cyclosporine failure or in scenarios where cyclosporine is contraindicated.
Question 2: Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect.
- A. Aliskiren - hypokalemia
- B. Hydralazine - heart failure
- C. Atenolol - hemolytic anemia
- D. Verapamil - constipation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Verapamil - Constipation*** - **Verapamil**, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, frequently causes constipation due to its effect on smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to **decreased intestinal motility**. - This adverse effect is common and often dose-dependent, making it a significant consideration in patient management. *Aliskiren - hypokalemia* - **Aliskiren**, a **direct renin inhibitor**, can cause **hyperkalemia** by reducing angiotensin II levels, which normally stimulate aldosterone secretion. - It does not typically cause hypokalemia; rather, potassium-sparing effects are often observed. *Hydralazine - heart failure* - **Hydralazine** is a **vasodilator** used to treat hypertension and **heart failure** with reduced ejection fraction by reducing afterload. - It does not cause heart failure; instead, it is often prescribed to improve cardiac function in patients with heart failure. *Atenolol - hemolytic anemia* - **Atenolol** is a **beta-blocker** primarily used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. - **Hemolytic anemia** is a rare adverse effect associated with certain drugs, but it is not a known or common side effect of atenolol.
Question 3: All of the following are true about ulcerative colitis except:
- A. Surgery is required in a subset of severe cases.
- B. Extra-intestinal problems of UC are managed medically
- C. The highest risk of UC requiring surgery in 1st year
- D. Steroid dependent cases need surgery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Steroid dependent cases need surgery*** - While **steroid dependency** in ulcerative colitis (UC) indicates a need for alternative or escalate medications, it does not automatically necessitate surgery [1]. - Many steroid-dependent patients can be managed effectively with **immunomodulators** or **biologic therapies**, avoiding surgery. *Surgery is required in a subset of severe cases.* - **Severe ulcerative colitis** that is refractory to medical therapy, or complicated by toxic megacolon, perforation, or severe bleeding, often requires surgical intervention [1]. - This statement is true, as surgery can be curative for UC by removing the affected colon [1]. *Extra-intestinal problems of UC are managed medically* - **Extra-intestinal manifestations** of ulcerative colitis, such as arthritis, skin lesions (erythema nodosum), and eye inflammation (uveitis), are typically managed with medications specific to those conditions, often in conjunction with UC treatment [1], [2]. - This statement is true, as these manifestations rarely require surgical intervention themselves. *The highest risk of UC requiring surgery in 1st year* - The risk of surgery in ulcerative colitis is indeed highest in the **first year after diagnosis**, particularly for patients presenting with severe disease. - This initial period often determines the disease course and responsiveness to medical treatment.
Question 4: What is the mechanism of action of Bevacizumab?
- A. Anti VEGF antibody (Correct Answer)
- B. Histone deacetylase inhibitor
- C. HER2 neu inhibitor
- D. Proteasome inhibitor
Explanation: ***Anti VEGF antibody*** - **Bevacizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that specifically targets and binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). - By inhibiting VEGF, bevacizumab prevents the formation of new blood vessels (**angiogenesis**) that tumors need to grow and metastasize. *Histone deacetylase inhibitor* - **Histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors** influence gene expression by modifying chromatin structure, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in cancer cells. - They are used in certain hematologic malignancies and solid tumors but do not directly interfere with angiogenesis. *Proteasome inhibitor* - **Proteasome inhibitors** like bortezomib block the action of proteasomes, leading to an accumulation of ubiquitinated proteins and induction of apoptosis in cancer cells. - This mechanism is distinct from blocking new blood vessel formation. *HER2 neu inhibitor* - **HER2 neu inhibitors** (e.g., trastuzumab) specifically target the HER2/neu receptor, which is overexpressed in certain breast and gastric cancers. - Their action primarily involves blocking growth signals transmitted through this receptor, not inhibiting VEGF or angiogenesis.
Question 5: A 40-year-old woman with Crohn's disease reports multiple bowel movements with frequent stools. She was previously treated with a mesalamine derivative "Pentasa" and in the latest episode of the disease flare-up, she didn't tolerate the oral steroid therapy with budesonide. What is the next appropriate step in her treatment?
- A. Sulfasalazine
- B. Prednisolone (oral)
- C. Hydrocortisone (IV)
- D. Azathioprine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Azathioprine*** - This patient has **moderate-to-severe Crohn's disease** (based on frequency and previous treatment failures with mesalamine and budesonide), indicating a need for **immunosuppressive therapy**. [1] - **Azathioprine** is a thiopurine, an **immunomodulator** used for maintaining remission and reducing the need for corticosteroids in Crohn's disease. [1] Its delayed onset of action (weeks to months) makes it suitable for long-term management after initial symptom control. *Hydrocortisone (IV)* - While intravenous corticosteroids like **hydrocortisone** are effective for inducing remission in severe Crohn's disease, the question implies a flare-up that didn't tolerate *oral* steroid therapy with budesonide, suggesting a need for a **steroid-sparing agent** or a different class of medication for long-term management. - The use of IV steroids would be for initial severe flare management, but for a patient with repeated flares and steroid intolerance, a **maintenance immunomodulator** is the next step. *Prednisolone (oral)* - Similar to budesonide, **oral prednisolone** is a corticosteroid used to induce remission. [1] However, the patient's history of not tolerating oral steroid therapy (budesonide) suggests that another oral corticosteroid might also be poorly tolerated or not effective for sustained remission. - Long-term use of systemic corticosteroids like prednisolone carries significant **side effects**, making a steroid-sparing agent a more appropriate next step in chronic management. [1] *Sulfasalazine* - **Sulfasalazine** is an aminosalicylate derivative, similar to mesalamine, and is primarily effective in **mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis** or Crohn's colitis, but **not as effective for Crohn's disease affecting the small bowel**. [1] - The patient has already failed **mesalamine** (a 5-ASA derivative), making another 5-ASA derivative like sulfasalazine an unlikely effective option for this flare-up, especially since it's typically used for milder disease.
Question 6: Which of the following is an H2 receptor antagonist used as an anti-ulcer drug?
- A. Pirenzepine
- B. Famotidine (Correct Answer)
- C. Rabeprazole
- D. Sucralfate
Explanation: ***Famotidine*** - **Famotidine** is a potent and selective **H2 receptor antagonist** that works by blocking histamine H2 receptors on parietal cells, thereby reducing gastric acid secretion. - It is widely used for the treatment of **peptic ulcers**, gastroesophageal reflux disease (**GERD**), and other acid-related disorders. *Pirenzepine* - **Pirenzepine** is a **selective M1 muscarinic antagonist**, which inhibits gastric acid secretion by blocking cholinergic pathways. - While it was previously used as an anti-ulcer drug, its mechanism of action is distinct from H2 receptor antagonism. *Rabeprazole* - **Rabeprazole** is a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)** that irreversibly blocks the H+/K+-ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells, leading to a profound and prolonged reduction in gastric acid production. - Its mechanism is different from H2 receptor antagonists. *Sucralfate* - **Sucralfate** is a **cytoprotective agent** that forms a viscous, protective gel that adheres to ulcerated areas, shielding them from acid, pepsin, and bile. - It does not directly inhibit acid secretion but rather provides a physical barrier and promotes healing.
Question 7: What is the definition of persistent diarrhea in infants based on duration?
- A. 14 days
- B. More than 14 days (Correct Answer)
- C. Less than 14 days (Acute diarrhea)
- D. 7 days
Explanation: ***Correct: More than 14 days*** - Persistent diarrhea is defined as diarrhea lasting **more than 14 days** according to WHO and standard pediatric guidelines - This classification is crucial for differentiating it from acute diarrhea and guiding management strategies - Persistent diarrhea carries increased risk of **malnutrition, dehydration, and micronutrient deficiencies** - Requires different management approach including nutritional rehabilitation and evaluation for underlying causes *Incorrect: 14 days* - Diarrhea lasting **exactly 14 days** is at the boundary but does not meet the criterion for persistent diarrhea - The definition requires duration to **exceed** 14 days, not just reach it *Incorrect: Less than 14 days (Acute diarrhea)* - Diarrhea lasting **less than 14 days** is classified as **acute diarrhea** - Acute diarrhea typically has different etiology (mostly viral) and is generally self-limiting - Management focuses on rehydration and rarely leads to the severe nutritional complications seen in persistent cases *Incorrect: 7 days* - 7 days is well within the acute diarrhea range - Has no special significance in the classification of diarrhea duration - Most acute diarrheal episodes resolve within 5-7 days
Question 8: Pelvic abscess can present with all symptoms except:
- A. bleeding rectum (Correct Answer)
- B. pain abdomen
- C. diarrhea with mucus discharge
- D. fever
Explanation: ***bleeding rectum*** - A **bleeding rectum** is not a typical presentation of a pelvic abscess. It might suggest other conditions like hemorrhoids, colorectal cancer, or inflammatory bowel disease. - Pelvic abscesses are collections of pus in the pelvic cavity, and while they can cause various gastrointestinal symptoms due to local inflammation and pressure, direct rectal bleeding is generally not among them. *pain abdomen* - **Abdominal pain** is a very common symptom of a pelvic abscess, often localized to the lower abdomen. - This pain is caused by inflammation, pressure, and irritation of surrounding organs and tissues. *diarrhea with mucus discharge* - A pelvic abscess can cause irritation to the adjacent **bowel segments**, leading to changes in bowel habits such as diarrhea. - The presence of **mucus discharge** can also be a sign of bowel irritation or inflammation, which can occur secondary to a nearby abscess. *fever* - **Fever** is a classic systemic sign of infection and inflammation, and thus is almost always present in patients with an abscess, including a pelvic abscess. - The body's inflammatory response to the infection typically elevates body temperature.
Question 9: What is the mechanism of action of Tegaserod?
- A. 5HT3 receptor antagonist
- B. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
- C. 5HT4 receptor agonist (Correct Answer)
- D. NK1 receptor antagonist
Explanation: ***5HT4 receptor agonist*** - Tegaserod is a **selective serotonin 5-HT4 receptor partial agonist** that facilitates the release of neurotransmitters. - This action **stimulates the peristaltic reflex** and intestinal secretion, thereby accelerating intestinal transit and alleviating symptoms of **irritable bowel syndrome with constipation (IBS-C)**. *5HT3 receptor antagonist* - **5-HT3 receptor antagonists** (e.g., ondansetron) are primarily used as **antiemetics** to prevent nausea and vomiting. - They work by blocking serotonin's action at 5-HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and the **chemoreceptor trigger zone** in the brain. *Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist* - **Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists** (e.g., metoclopramide) are used as **prokinetics** and antiemetics due to their ability to block dopamine's inhibitory effect on gastrointestinal motility. - They increase **gastric emptying** and intestinal transit, but this is not the primary mechanism of tegaserod. *NK1 receptor antagonist* - **Neurokinin-1 (NK1) receptor antagonists** (e.g., aprepitant) are primarily used for their **antiemetic properties**, particularly in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. - They block the action of **substance P** at the NK1 receptor, which is involved in the emetic reflex.
Question 10: A new drug has been introduced into the market which was found to decrease mortality but it does not cure the disease. Which of the following is a true statement regarding prevalence and incidence?
- A. Increase in prevalence (Correct Answer)
- B. Decrease in incidence
- C. Decrease in prevalence
- D. Increase in incidence
Explanation: ***Increase in prevalence*** - A drug that decreases mortality without curing the disease means people **live longer with the condition**, thus increasing the duration of disease - **Prevalence = Incidence × Duration**: Since duration increases while incidence remains constant, prevalence increases - More existing cases accumulate over time as fewer patients die from the disease *Decrease in incidence* - **Incidence** refers to the rate at which **new cases** develop in a population - This drug affects survival of existing cases, not the development of new cases - Since the drug neither prevents nor promotes new cases, **incidence remains unchanged** (not decreased) *Decrease in prevalence* - Prevalence would decrease if the drug **cured the disease** (removing people from the diseased pool) or if **mortality increased** - The scenario describes the opposite: decreased mortality without cure, which **increases** prevalence *Increase in incidence* - This would mean more new cases are developing over time - The drug affects **survival** of existing cases, not the **rate of new diagnoses** - Incidence remains unchanged, not increased
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