Neurology — MCQs

An 8-month-old child presented with reduced appetite, abdominal distension and pain, and psychomotor retardation. The child was normal at birth, and both parents are normal. On examination: Hepatosplenomegaly, moderate lymphadenopathy, abnormal posturing of the limbs, trunk, and face, impaired voluntary rapid eye movements, cherry-red spot on fundus examination, and bony defects. Lymph node histopathology and electron microscopy findings were noted. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in the above disease?

Q187Medium

All of the following predominantly involve the white matter EXCEPT?

Q188Easy

Rett's syndrome is associated with a deficiency of which vitamin?

Q189

An 8-year-old child with a history of GTCS came with an episode of convulsions for more than 45 minutes. What will be the appropriate management for this patient?

Q190

The infant is being evaluated for recurrent episodes of seizures. EEG shows Hypsarrhythmia. Which drug is preferred for management?

Neurology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 181: What is the drug of choice for treating myoclonus in children?

A. Clonazepam
B. Sodium Valproate (Correct Answer)
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Ethosuximide

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Sodium Valproate** is the drug of choice (DOC) for myoclonus in children because it is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that enhances GABAergic transmission and inhibits T-type calcium channels and voltage-gated sodium channels. It is uniquely effective against generalized seizure types, particularly myoclonic, absence, and tonic-clonic seizures. **Analysis of Options:** * **Sodium Valproate (Correct):** It is the first-line treatment for Myoclonic-Astatic Epilepsy (Doose syndrome) and Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME). * **Clonazepam:** While highly effective for acute myoclonic episodes due to its potent GABAergic action, it is generally considered a second-line or adjunctive therapy because of side effects like sedation, drooling, and the development of tolerance. * **Phenobarbitone:** Primarily used for neonatal seizures and focal seizures. It is not the preferred agent for myoclonus and can sometimes exacerbate certain generalized seizure types. * **Ethosuximide:** This is the drug of choice for **pure absence seizures** only. It lacks significant activity against myoclonic or tonic-clonic seizures. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Avoidance:** Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, and Phenytoin should be avoided in myoclonic seizures as they can **exacerbate** myoclonus. * **Alternative:** Levetiracetam is an excellent second-line agent or alternative if Valproate is contraindicated. * **Side Effects:** Remember the "VALPROATE" mnemonic: Weight gain, Alopecia, Liver toxicity, Pancreatitis, Retained fat (Obesity), Oedema, Anorexia, Tremor, and Teratogenicity (Neural tube defects).

Question 182: Hypsarrhythmia in a child is typically associated with which type of epilepsy?

A. Grandmal epilepsy
B. Petitmal epilepsy
C. Myoclonic epilepsy (Correct Answer)
D. Reflex epilepsy

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Hypsarrhythmia** is the classic, pathognomonic EEG finding associated with **West Syndrome**, a specific type of epileptic encephalopathy. West Syndrome is characterized by a clinical triad: **infantile spasms** (a form of myoclonic epilepsy), hypsarrhythmia on EEG, and developmental regression. 1. **Why Myoclonic Epilepsy is Correct:** Infantile spasms are brief, axial muscle contractions (flexor, extensor, or mixed) that occur in clusters. These are classified under the broader umbrella of myoclonic/spasmodic seizures. The EEG shows **Hypsarrhythmia**, described as a "chaotic" pattern of high-voltage, polymorphic slow waves and spikes with a complete loss of rhythmic background activity. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Grand mal (Generalized Tonic-Clonic):** Associated with generalized spikes and waves or polyspike-wave discharges, not hypsarrhythmia. * **Petit mal (Absence Seizures):** Characteristically shows a **3 Hz spike-and-wave** pattern on EEG. * **Reflex Epilepsy:** These are seizures triggered by specific sensory stimuli (e.g., flashing lights). The EEG pattern depends on the seizure type triggered, but it is not typically hypsarrhythmia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **West Syndrome Triad:** Infantile Spasms + Hypsarrhythmia + Mental Retardation. * **Age of Onset:** Typically between 4 to 8 months of age. * **Drug of Choice (DOC):** **ACTH** is the first-line treatment. However, if the cause is **Tuberous Sclerosis**, the DOC is **Vigabatrin**. * **Prognosis:** Generally poor; hypsarrhythmia usually disappears by age 2–5, but seizures often evolve into **Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome** (characterized by slow spike-wave activity, <2.5 Hz).

Question 183: What is the most probable cause of a large head in this child?

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Mucopolysaccharidosis
C. Hydrocephalus (Correct Answer)
D. Cerebral gigantism

Explanation: ***Hydrocephalus*** - **Hydrocephalus** is the most common cause of **macrocephaly** in children, presenting with **bulging fontanelle**, **setting sun sign**, and **prominent scalp veins**. - Results from **cerebrospinal fluid accumulation** in the ventricles, causing progressive head enlargement and increased **intracranial pressure**. *Osteogenesis imperfecta* - Primarily a **connective tissue disorder** causing **bone fragility** and **blue sclerae**, not typically associated with significant head enlargement. - Head size abnormalities are uncommon and usually related to **skull deformities** rather than true macrocephaly. *Mucopolysaccharidosis* - Can cause **macrocephaly** but is less common than hydrocephalus and typically presents with **coarse facial features**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **developmental delays**. - The **lysosomal storage disorder** causes **GAG accumulation** leading to various organ involvement beyond just head enlargement. *Cerebral gigantism* - A rare cause of **macrocephaly** associated with **Sotos syndrome**, characterized by **accelerated growth** and **distinctive facial features**. - Less probable than hydrocephalus and typically presents with **tall stature** and **developmental delays** in addition to large head size.

Question 184: A child presents with unilateral facial pigmentation and a history of multiple seizures. Radiography of the skull revealed a specific finding. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A. Cerebral palsy
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. West syndrome
D. Sturge-Weber syndrome (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **unilateral facial pigmentation** (Port-wine stain) combined with **seizures** is the classic hallmark of **Sturge-Weber Syndrome (SWS)**, also known as encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis. **1. Why Sturge-Weber Syndrome is correct:** SWS is a neurocutaneous syndrome characterized by a capillary malformation (Port-wine stain) typically in the distribution of the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) branches of the trigeminal nerve. The seizures result from underlying **leptomeningeal angiomas**, which cause cortical ischemia and atrophy. The "specific finding" on skull radiography mentioned is **"Tram-track" calcifications**, which represent gyriform calcifications of the cerebral cortex underlying the angioma. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Cerebral Palsy:** This is a non-progressive motor impairment due to brain injury in the prenatal or perinatal period. While seizures can occur, it does not present with specific facial pigmentation or "tram-track" calcifications. * **Neurofibromatosis (Type 1):** While a neurocutaneous syndrome, its cutaneous markers are Café-au-lait spots and neurofibromas, not a unilateral port-wine stain. Radiographic findings typically include sphenoid wing dysplasia or optic gliomas. * **West Syndrome:** This is a triad of infantile spasms, hypsarrhythmia on EEG, and developmental regression. It is an age-specific epilepsy syndrome and not associated with facial vascular malformations. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Triad of SWS:** Port-wine stain (Nevus Flammeus), Leptomeningeal angiomatosis, and Glaucoma. * **Radiology:** "Tram-track" calcification is best seen on **CT scan** (more sensitive than X-ray). * **Genetics:** Caused by a somatic mutation in the **GNAQ gene**. * **Management:** Aimed at seizure control and managing increased intraocular pressure (glaucoma).

Question 185: Which of the following conditions is associated with vestibular schwannoma, spinal cord astrocytoma, and meningioma?

A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis - 1
C. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis - 2 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation** **Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF-2)**, also known as MISME syndrome (Multiple Inherited Schwannomas, Meningiomas, and Ependymomas), is the correct answer. It is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous syndrome caused by a mutation in the **merlin gene** on **chromosome 22**. The hallmark of NF-2 is **bilateral vestibular schwannomas** (acoustic neuromas), which typically present with sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus. Beyond the 8th cranial nerve, patients are highly predisposed to other CNS tumors, specifically **meningiomas** and intramedullary spinal tumors, most commonly **ependymomas** and **astrocytomas**. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Tuberous Sclerosis (TSC):** Characterized by the triad of seizures, mental retardation, and adenoma sebaceum. Associated tumors include Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytomas (SEGA), cortical tubers, and cardiac rhabdomyomas. * **Neurofibromatosis-1 (NF-1):** Linked to chromosome 17. It presents with Lisch nodules, Café-au-lait spots, and neurofibromas. The classic CNS tumor associated with NF-1 is **Optic Nerve Glioma**, not vestibular schwannoma. * **Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL):** Associated with chromosome 3. It is characterized by **hemangioblastomas** (cerebellum, retina, spinal cord), renal cell carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mnemonic for NF-2:** Remember **"22"**—Chromosome **22**, **2** ears (bilateral schwannomas), and **2** eyes (juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacities/cataracts). * **Diagnostic Hallmark:** Bilateral vestibular schwannomas on MRI are pathognomonic for NF-2. * **NF-1 vs. NF-2:** NF-1 is more common and primarily involves peripheral nerves and skin; NF-2 is rarer and primarily involves central nervous system tumors.

Question 186: An 8-month-old child presented with reduced appetite, abdominal distension and pain, and psychomotor retardation. The child was normal at birth, and both parents are normal. On examination: Hepatosplenomegaly, moderate lymphadenopathy, abnormal posturing of the limbs, trunk, and face, impaired voluntary rapid eye movements, cherry-red spot on fundus examination, and bony defects. Lymph node histopathology and electron microscopy findings were noted. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in the above disease?

A. Hexosaminidase A
B. Alpha-galactosidase A
C. Glucocerebrosidase
D. Sphingomyelinase (Correct Answer)

Explanation: The clinical presentation points toward **Niemann-Pick Disease (NPD) Type A**, a lysosomal storage disorder characterized by the deficiency of the enzyme **Sphingomyelinase**. ### **Why Sphingomyelinase is Correct** The combination of **hepatosplenomegaly** and a **cherry-red spot** on the fundus is the classic "hallmark" for Niemann-Pick Type A. While Tay-Sachs also presents with a cherry-red spot, it lacks organomegaly. The "abnormal posturing" and "impaired rapid eye movements" (supranuclear gaze palsy) are characteristic neurological findings. The accumulation of sphingomyelin in the reticuloendothelial system leads to lymphadenopathy and bony defects (due to marrow expansion). Histopathology typically reveals "foam cells" (lipid-laden macrophages). ### **Why Other Options are Incorrect** * **Hexosaminidase A (Tay-Sachs Disease):** Presents with a cherry-red spot and psychomotor regression, but **never** features hepatosplenomegaly or bony defects. * **Alpha-galactosidase A (Fabry Disease):** Presents with angiokeratomas, peripheral neuropathy (burning pain), and renal failure. It does not typically cause a cherry-red spot or early infancy psychomotor retardation. * **Glucocerebrosidase (Gaucher Disease):** The most common lysosomal storage disorder. While it features massive hepatosplenomegaly and bony "Erlenmeyer flask" deformities, it **does not** present with a cherry-red spot. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Niemann-Pick Type A:** Deficiency of Sphingomyelinase; Cherry-red spot + Hepatosplenomegaly; Foam cells on biopsy. * **Tay-Sachs:** Deficiency of Hexosaminidase A; Cherry-red spot + **No** Hepatosplenomegaly; Onion-skin lysosomes on EM. * **Gaucher:** Deficiency of Glucocerebrosidase; Hepatosplenomegaly + Bony crises; **Crumpled tissue paper** appearance of macrophages. * **Cherry-red spot differential:** Niemann-Pick, Tay-Sachs, Sandhoff disease, Sialidosis, and Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO).

Question 187: All of the following predominantly involve the white matter EXCEPT?

A. Alexander disease
B. Canavan disease
C. Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (Correct Answer)
D. Adrenoleukodystrophy

Explanation: This question tests the ability to differentiate between **Leukodystrophies** (white matter disorders) and **Poliodystrophies** (gray matter disorders). ### **Explanation** The correct answer is **Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (NCL)**. NCL is a group of lysosomal storage disorders characterized by the accumulation of lipopigments (ceroid and lipofuscin) primarily within the **neurons**. Since neurons are concentrated in the **gray matter**, NCL is classified as a poliodystrophy. Clinical hallmarks include seizures, dementia, and visual loss (retinal degeneration), which are typical of gray matter involvement. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Alexander disease:** A leukodystrophy caused by mutations in the *GFAP* gene. It involves the progressive destruction of white matter, typically with a **frontal lobe predominance** and the presence of Rosenthal fibers. * **Canavan disease:** An autosomal recessive leukodystrophy caused by aspartoacylase deficiency. It leads to spongy degeneration of the white matter and is characterized by **macrocephaly** and elevated N-acetylaspartic acid (NAA) on MRS. * **Adrenoleukodystrophy (X-linked):** A peroxisomal disorder affecting the breakdown of very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA). It causes progressive inflammatory demyelination of the white matter, typically starting in the **posterior (occipital) regions**. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls** * **Gray Matter vs. White Matter:** * **Gray Matter (Poliodystrophy):** Early seizures, early dementia, vision loss (macular changes). Examples: NCL, Tay-Sachs, Gaucher. * **White Matter (Leukodystrophy):** Early motor signs (spasticity, ataxia), late seizures, macrocephaly. Examples: Alexander, Canavan, Krabbe, MLD. * **Imaging Clues:** * **Frontal involvement:** Alexander disease. * **Occipital involvement:** Adrenoleukodystrophy. * **Diffuse/Spongy with Macrocephaly:** Canavan disease. * **Thalamic hyperdensity (CT):** Krabbe disease.

Question 188: Rett's syndrome is associated with a deficiency of which vitamin?

A. Niacin
B. Biotin (Correct Answer)
C. Carotene
D. Vitamin D

Explanation: **Explanation:** Rett’s syndrome is a progressive neurodevelopmental disorder primarily affecting females, characterized by a period of normal development followed by a loss of purposeful hand skills, spoken language, and the development of stereotypic hand movements (e.g., hand-wringing). **Why Biotin is the correct answer:** While Rett’s syndrome is primarily caused by a mutation in the **MECP2 gene** on the X chromosome, clinical studies and biochemical research have historically linked it to a functional **deficiency of Biotin (Vitamin B7)**. Biotin is a crucial cofactor for carboxylase enzymes involved in fatty acid synthesis and gluconeogenesis. In some patients with Rett’s syndrome, low levels of biotinidase or biotin have been observed, and high-dose biotin supplementation has been explored to improve neurological symptoms and metabolic stability. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Niacin (Vitamin B3):** Deficiency leads to Pellagra (Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Death). It is not pathophysiologically linked to Rett’s syndrome. * **Carotene (Vitamin A precursor):** Deficiency causes xerophthalmia and night blindness. It has no known association with the MECP2 mutation or Rett’s clinical features. * **Vitamin D:** While children with Rett’s syndrome are at high risk for osteopenia and fractures due to immobility and anti-epileptic drugs, Vitamin D deficiency is a secondary complication rather than the primary biochemical association of the syndrome. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Genetics:** X-linked dominant inheritance; lethal in males (usually). * **Key Feature:** "Hand-wringing" or "hand-washing" stereotypies. * **Clinical Course:** Deceleration of head growth (acquired microcephaly) and loss of previously acquired milestones (regression). * **Differential:** Often confused with Autism, but Rett’s has a distinct period of regression and specific motor patterns.

Question 189: An 8-year-old child with a history of GTCS came with an episode of convulsions for more than 45 minutes. What will be the appropriate management for this patient?

A. Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam (Correct Answer)
B. Levetiracetam followed by valproate
C. Valproate followed by gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam

Explanation: ***Lorazepam followed by levetiracetam***- **Status epilepticus (SE)** is defined as a seizure lasting more than five minutes or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness between them. The initial management involves the administration of a **benzodiazepine** (like lorazepam, midazolam, or diazepam) to rapidly terminate the seizure.- If the seizure persists after the benzodiazepine, the next step is to initiate a non-benzodiazepine antiseizure medication (ASM) like **levetiracetam**, **fosphenytoin**, or **valproate** to prevent seizure recurrence.*Valproate followed by gabapentin*- **Valproate** is a suitable second-line agent for SE, but it should not be the first drug; rapid control requires a **benzodiazepine**.- **Gabapentin** is typically not used in the management of acute SE because its onset of action is slow and it lacks efficacy for immediate seizure termination.*Carbamazepine followed by lorazepam*- **Carbamazepine** is a first-line agent for focal seizures but is generally avoided in generalized-onset seizures (like the **GTCS** history suggests) and is not used as a first-line drug for acute SE.- **Lorazepam** is the preferred first-line agent, and delaying it until after a non-benzodiazepine drug is inappropriate for acute SE management.*Levetiracetam followed by valproate*- **Levetiracetam** is an excellent second-line agent for SE but must be preceded by a **benzodiazepine** to rapidly terminate the ongoing seizure.- **Valproate** is also a suitable second-line agent, but the protocol requires immediate cessation of the seizure with a **benzodiazepine** before initiating an ASM like levetiracetam or valproate.

Question 190: The infant is being evaluated for recurrent episodes of seizures. EEG shows Hypsarrhythmia. Which drug is preferred for management?

A. Valproate
B. Vigabatrin
C. ACTH (Correct Answer)
D. Carbamazepine

Explanation: ***ACTH*** - The EEG pattern shown is **hypsarrhythmia**, which is a disorganized, high-amplitude, and chaotic pattern characteristic of **West syndrome** (infantile spasms). - **Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)** is a first-line therapy for infantile spasms, particularly in cases not associated with tuberous sclerosis, and is effective in stopping spasms and resolving the hypsarrhythmia pattern. *Vigabatrin* - **Vigabatrin** is also a first-line treatment for infantile spasms but is specifically the drug of choice if the underlying cause is **Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)**. - It carries a risk of causing irreversible **peripheral visual field defects**, which requires careful ophthalmologic monitoring. *Valproate* - **Valproate** is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug but is not a first-line treatment for infantile spasms. - Its use is limited in infants due to the significant risk of fatal **hepatotoxicity**, especially in children younger than two years old. *Carbamazepine* - **Carbamazepine** is typically used for focal seizures and is known to be ineffective or may even **worsen** infantile spasms and other generalized epilepsies. - It is not indicated for the treatment of West syndrome due to its potential to exacerbate the seizures.

Practice by Chapter

Seizure Disorders and Epilepsy

Practice Questions

Febrile Seizures

Practice Questions

Headache Disorders

Practice Questions

Cerebral Palsy

Practice Questions

Neural Tube Defects

Practice Questions

Neuromuscular Disorders

Practice Questions

Neurodegenerative Disorders

Practice Questions

CNS Infections

Practice Questions

Hydrocephalus

Practice Questions

Movement Disorders

Practice Questions

Traumatic Brain Injury

Practice Questions

Neuroimaging in Pediatrics

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Neurology — MCQs

Neurology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?