Immunotherapy — MCQs
Adverse reactions following whole cell pertussis immunization include:
An example of an IMiD (immunomodulatory derivative of thalidomide) is:
Omalizumab is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?
In chronic allergy, which Ig is more persistent in the body?
Which is the best investigation to confirm diagnosis of anaphylaxis?
IV dose of 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine in a 2 kg preterm baby is:
What is a characteristic feature of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
A child presents with delayed separation of the umbilical cord, leukocytosis, Down syndrome, and recurrent infections. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following is a feature of Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Immunotherapy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Adverse reactions following whole cell pertussis immunization include:
- A. Fever
- B. Local swelling
- C. Excessive cry
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Whole-cell pertussis vaccines** are associated with a range of common, generally self-limiting adverse reactions. - These include systemic effects like **fever** and irritability, often manifested by excessive crying, as well as local reactions at the injection site. *Fever* - **Fever** is a very common systemic adverse reaction following whole-cell pertussis immunization, indicating the body's immune response. - This reaction typically resolves within 24-48 hours. *Excessive cry* - **Excessive crying** (often described as inconsolable crying) for several hours is a known systemic adverse effect of whole-cell pertussis vaccines. - This symptom usually reflects irritability and discomfort experienced by the infant. *Local swelling* - **Local swelling** at the injection site, along with redness and tenderness, is a frequent local adverse reaction to whole-cell pertussis immunization. - These local reactions are generally mild and self-limiting, resolving within a few days.
Question 2: An example of an IMiD (immunomodulatory derivative of thalidomide) is:
- A. Palivizumab
- B. Lenalidomide (Correct Answer)
- C. Ribavirin
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Lenalidomide*** - **Lenalidomide** is a well-known **immunomodulatory imide drug (IMiD)** derived from thalidomide, commonly used in the treatment of multiple myeloma and myelodysplastic syndromes. - IMiDs are characterized by their ability to modulate immune responses, enhance T-cell and NK-cell activity, and have direct anti-cancer effects through inhibition of angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. *Palivizumab* - **Palivizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the fusion protein of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), used for prophylaxis in high-risk infants. - It is not classified as an immunomodulatory imide drug and has a completely different structure and mechanism of action. *Ribavirin* - **Ribavirin** is an **antiviral agent** primarily used to treat chronic hepatitis C virus infection and respiratory syncytial virus. - Its mechanism of action is antiviral, not immunomodulatory in the same way as IMiDs. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Lenalidomide** is indeed an example of an IMiD, making the statement false. - At least one correct answer exists among the given choices.
Question 3: Omalizumab is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?
- A. Breast carcinoma
- B. Asthma (Correct Answer)
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation: ***Asthma*** - **Omalizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets and binds to **immunoglobulin E (IgE)**, preventing it from binding to mast cells and basophils. - By reducing free IgE, omalizumab helps to prevent the release of inflammatory mediators, thereby **reducing allergic reactions and asthma symptoms**, particularly in patients with severe persistent allergic asthma. *Breast carcinoma* - **Omalizumab** is not indicated for the treatment of **breast carcinoma**; treatments for breast cancer typically involve chemotherapy, radiation, surgery, and targeted therapies specific to cancer cells. - Targeted therapies for breast cancer often focus on hormone receptors (e.g., **estrogen receptor**) or growth factor receptors (e.g., **HER2**), not IgE. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Omalizumab** is not used for **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**; RA is an autoimmune disease primarily involving **T-cells and cytokines** like **TNF-alpha** and **IL-6**. - Treatment for RA typically includes **DMARDs** (disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs) and **biological agents** that target specific inflammatory pathways (e.g., **adalimumab**, **etanercept**). *Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)* - **Omalizumab** is not indicated for **COPD**, which is primarily characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways and **emphysema**, largely caused by smoking. - COPD management focuses on bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy, with no role for IgE-targeting therapy.
Question 4: In chronic allergy, which Ig is more persistent in the body?
- A. Ig A
- B. Ig E (Correct Answer)
- C. Ig G
- D. Ig M
Explanation: ***Ig E*** - **IgE** is the primary antibody involved in **allergic reactions**, binding to receptors on **mast cells** and **basophils** to trigger histamine release. - In chronic allergy, sustained exposure to allergens leads to continuous production of IgE, making it a **persistent** and dominant immunoglobulin in the allergic response. *Ig A* - **IgA** is mainly found in **mucosal secretions**, such as tears, saliva, and gut, protecting against pathogens at these sites. - While important for immunity, IgA does not play a direct role in the **immediate hypersensitivity reactions** characteristic of chronic allergies. *Ig G* - **IgG** is the most abundant antibody in serum, providing **long-term immunity** against pathogens through neutralization, opsonization, and complement activation. - Though present, IgG is not the **primary mediator** of the **allergic response** in chronic allergy, instead often associated with protective immunity or certain non-IgE mediated hypersensitivities. *Ig M* - **IgM** is the first antibody produced during a **primary immune response** and is effective at activating the complement system. - It is predominantly found in the bloodstream and functions as a **short-term defender**, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis or persistence of chronic allergies.
Question 5: Which is the best investigation to confirm diagnosis of anaphylaxis?
- A. IgA levels
- B. Serum tryptase (Correct Answer)
- C. IgD levels
- D. Serum precipitins
Explanation: ***Serum tryptase*** - **Serum tryptase** is released from activated mast cells and is a reliable biomarker for confirming anaphylaxis, particularly when measured within 1-3 hours of symptom onset. - Elevated levels help differentiate anaphylaxis from other conditions with similar symptoms, especially when the clinical picture is ambiguous. *IgA levels* - **IgA levels** are relevant in diagnosing conditions like selective IgA deficiency or celiac disease, but they do not play a direct role in confirming acute anaphylaxis. - They reflect long-term immune status rather than immediate hypersensitivity reactions. *IgD levels* - **IgD levels** have no established role in the diagnosis or confirmation of anaphylaxis. - Their physiological function is not fully understood, but they are not used as biomarkers for acute allergic reactions. *Serum precipitins* - **Serum precipitins** are antibodies detected in various hypersensitivity reactions, especially to inhaled antigens, and are not specific for anaphylaxis [1]. - They are primarily associated with conditions like hypersensitivity pneumonitis, reflecting different immunological mechanisms [1].
Question 6: IV dose of 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine in a 2 kg preterm baby is:
- A. 0.1 ml
- B. 0.3 ml
- C. 0.2 ml (Correct Answer)
- D. 0.4 ml
Explanation: ***0.2 ml*** - The recommended **IV dose of 1:10,000 epinephrine** for neonatal resuscitation is **0.01 to 0.03 mg/kg**. - For a 2 kg baby: dose range = 0.02 to 0.06 mg - Since 1:10,000 epinephrine contains **0.1 mg/mL**, a dose of **0.2 mL delivers 0.02 mg** (0.01 mg/kg) - This represents the **recommended starting dose** at the lower end of the therapeutic range, which is preferred in neonatal resuscitation to minimize adverse effects while ensuring efficacy. *0.1 ml* - This volume delivers **0.01 mg** (0.005 mg/kg for a 2 kg infant) - This is **below the recommended minimum dose** of 0.01 mg/kg and would be **sub-therapeutic** - Insufficient for effective neonatal resuscitation *0.3 ml* - This volume delivers **0.03 mg** (0.015 mg/kg for a 2 kg infant) - This falls **within the recommended range** but is at the **mid-range** dose - While acceptable, the lower starting dose (0.2 mL) is typically preferred initially, with subsequent doses adjusted based on response *0.4 ml* - This volume delivers **0.04 mg** (0.02 mg/kg for a 2 kg infant) - This falls **within the recommended range** (0.01-0.03 mg/kg) and represents an appropriate therapeutic dose - However, **0.2 mL (0.01 mg/kg) is the standard initial dose** recommended by NRP (Neonatal Resuscitation Program) guidelines, making it the preferred answer for initial administration
Question 7: What is a characteristic feature of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
- A. Uveitis is a feature
- B. It occurs after 16 years of age
- C. NSAIDs are contraindicated
- D. RA factor is negative (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (sJIA)**, also known as Still’s disease, is a unique subtype of JIA characterized by prominent extra-articular features. **Why the correct answer is right:** In sJIA, the **Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is characteristically negative**. Unlike the polyarticular subtype (which can be RF positive), sJIA is considered an autoinflammatory disease rather than a classic autoimmune disease. Diagnosis is clinical, based on the presence of arthritis in one or more joints associated with (or preceded by) a fever of at least 2 weeks' duration that is daily ("quotidian") for at least 3 days, accompanied by features like an evanescent salmon-pink rash, lymphadenopathy, or serositis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Uveitis is a feature:** This is incorrect for sJIA. Chronic anterior uveitis is a classic complication of **Oligoarticular JIA** (especially if ANA positive). Uveitis is very rare in the systemic subtype. * **B. It occurs after 16 years of age:** By definition, JIA must have an onset **before the age of 16**. If similar symptoms occur after 16, it is termed Adult-Onset Still’s Disease (AOSD). * **C. NSAIDs are contraindicated:** This is false. NSAIDs are often the **first-line** symptomatic treatment for pain and fever in JIA, though systemic steroids or biologics (IL-1 and IL-6 inhibitors) are usually required for definitive control. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Fever Pattern:** Classic "Quotidian" fever (spikes once daily, usually in the evening, returning to baseline). * **Laboratory Markers:** Marked leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and highly elevated ESR/CRP. * **Ferritin:** Extremely high ferritin levels are common and can signal the onset of **Macrophage Activation Syndrome (MAS)**, a life-threatening complication of sJIA. * **Biologics of Choice:** Tocilizumab (IL-6 inhibitor) and Anakinra/Canakinumab (IL-1 inhibitors).
Question 8: A child presents with delayed separation of the umbilical cord, leukocytosis, Down syndrome, and recurrent infections. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (Correct Answer)
- B. Neonatal Sepsis
- C. Histiocytosis-X
- D. All of the above
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: A. Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD)** **Why it is correct:** Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (Type 1) is a primary immunodeficiency caused by a defect in the **CD18 subunit of $\beta_2$-integrins**. This defect prevents neutrophils from adhering to the vascular endothelium and migrating into tissues (diapedesis). * **Delayed separation of the umbilical cord:** This is the classic hallmark of LAD. Normally, neutrophils infiltrate the cord stump to facilitate its detachment; in LAD, the absence of neutrophils at the site leads to delayed separation (often >30 days). * **Leukocytosis:** Because neutrophils cannot leave the bloodstream to enter tissues, they accumulate in the blood, leading to persistent, marked neutrophilic leukocytosis. * **Recurrent Infections:** Patients suffer from skin and mucosal infections (e.g., omphalitis, periodontitis) characterized by a **lack of pus formation** despite high white cell counts. * **Association:** While not a primary feature, LAD has been documented in case reports involving children with Down syndrome. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **B. Neonatal Sepsis:** While sepsis causes leukocytosis and infections, it does not explain the specific anatomical delay in umbilical cord separation. * **C. Histiocytosis-X (Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis):** This typically presents with seborrheic-like skin rashes, lytic bone lesions, and hepatosplenomegaly, rather than a specific defect in cord separation or integrin function. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **LAD Type 1:** Defect in **CD18** (Integrins). * **LAD Type 2:** Defect in **Sialyl-Lewis X** (Selectins); presents with short stature and intellectual disability. * **Key Triad:** Delayed cord separation + Recurrent "cold" infections (no pus) + Extreme neutrophilia. * **Diagnosis:** Confirmed by **Flow Cytometry** showing decreased expression of CD11/CD18.
Question 9: Which of the following is a feature of Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
- A. Palpable purpura and arthralgia (Correct Answer)
- B. Palpable purpura
- C. Occurs only in elderly persons
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)**, now commonly referred to as **IgA Vasculitis**, is the most common systemic vasculitis in children. It is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by the deposition of IgA-dominant immune complexes. 1. **Why Option A is correct:** The classic clinical tetrad of HSP includes **palpable purpura** (without thrombocytopenia), **arthralgia/arthritis**, abdominal pain, and renal disease (hematuria). Palpable purpura is the hallmark finding, typically distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities. Arthralgia occurs in about 75% of cases, most commonly affecting the knees and ankles. Therefore, Option A represents the most comprehensive clinical feature among the choices. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option B:** While palpable purpura is a feature, Option A is a more complete description of the systemic nature of the disease. * **Option C:** HSP is primarily a **pediatric disease**, with a peak incidence between ages 3 and 10 years. It is rare in infants and less common in adults. * **Option D:** A defining feature of HSP is that it is a **non-thrombocytopenic purpura**. The platelet count is characteristically normal or even elevated (thrombocytosis). This distinguishes it from Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Preceding Event:** Often follows an Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), specifically Group A *Streptococcus*. * **Renal Involvement:** The most serious long-term complication is **HSP nephritis**, which is histologically identical to IgA Nephropathy (Berger’s disease). * **Gastrointestinal:** Intussusception (typically ileo-ileal) is a known surgical complication. * **Diagnosis:** Primarily clinical; skin biopsy shows **leukocytoclastic vasculitis** with IgA deposition on immunofluorescence.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a criterion for Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
- A. Age greater than 16 years (Correct Answer)
- B. Arthritis duration greater than 3 weeks
- C. Arthritis duration greater than 6 months
- D. One or more joint involvement
Explanation: **Explanation:** Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA), formerly known as Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis (JRA), is defined by a specific set of clinical criteria designed to distinguish it from adult inflammatory arthritides. **Why Option A is the correct answer:** The fundamental definition of JIA requires the **onset of symptoms before the age of 16 years**. Therefore, "Age greater than 16 years" is an exclusion criterion and does not fit the diagnostic framework. If the disease starts after age 16, it is classified under adult rheumatoid arthritis or other adult-onset connective tissue disorders. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option B & C (Duration):** To diagnose JIA, arthritis must persist for a minimum of **6 weeks**. While Option B (3 weeks) is technically incorrect in duration, and Option C (6 months) is longer than required, in the context of NEET-PG questions regarding "NOT a criterion," the age limit (Option A) is the absolute defining boundary. *Note: Standard criteria require ≥6 weeks; Option B is often used as a distractor in older question formats.* * **Option D (Joint Involvement):** JIA is characterized by the presence of objective arthritis (swelling or limitation of motion with pain) in **one or more joints**. This is a core requirement for the diagnosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Subtypes:** The most common subtype is **Oligoarthritis** (involving ≤4 joints), which carries a high risk of **asymptomatic chronic anterior uveitis** (requires regular slit-lamp exams). * **Systemic JIA (Still’s Disease):** Characterized by daily "quotidian" fevers, evanescent salmon-pink rashes, and hepatosplenomegaly. * **Markers:** Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is usually negative in children (only positive in ~10-15% of cases, typically older girls). ANA positivity is a strong risk factor for uveitis.
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