Rheumatic Heart Disease — MCQs
A 12 year old girl was brought with fever, malaise, and migrating polyarthritis. She had a history of recurrent throat infections in the past. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate is noted. Which among the following is NOT a major Jones criteria for diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?
To prevent acute rheumatic fever, acute pharyngitis due to group A streptococci should be treated with antibiotics before:
A 7 year old child with a known history of rheumatic heart disease presents with a 3 weeks history of fever with palpitations. Most likely cause is:
An 11-year-old child with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis presents you with fever and arthralgia. There is no past history of rheumatic heart disease or features of carditis or valvular disease. How often is 600,000 IU of benzathine penicillin recommended for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
A 10-year-old boy with a 2-week history of an upper respiratory infection was admitted to the hospital with malaise, fever, joint swelling and diffuse rash. The patient is treated and discharged. However, the patient suffers from recurrent pharyngitis and a few years later, develops a heart murmur. This patient's heart murmur is most likely caused by exposure to which of the following pathogens?
All of the following can occur in rheumatic fever except?
Which of the following is a minor criterion for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?
Which of the following cyanotic congenital heart disease is associated with increased risk of chest infections?
A 29-day-old child presents with features of congestive cardiac failure and left ventricular hypertrophy. Auscultation shows a short systolic murmur. The most likely diagnosis is:
Congenital cyanotic heart disease with pulmonary oligemia is seen with –
Rheumatic Heart Disease Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A 12 year old girl was brought with fever, malaise, and migrating polyarthritis. She had a history of recurrent throat infections in the past. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate is noted. Which among the following is NOT a major Jones criteria for diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Raised ESR (Correct Answer)
- B. Chorea
- C. Arthritis
- D. Carditis
Explanation: ***Raised ESR*** - **Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)** is a **minor criterion** in the Jones Criteria for acute rheumatic fever, indicating inflammation but not specific enough to be a major criterion. - While it supports the diagnosis, it is a non-specific inflammatory marker rather than a distinct clinical manifestation of the disease. *Chorea* - **Sydenham's chorea** (St. Vitus' dance) is a **major manifestation** of acute rheumatic fever, characterized by involuntary, purposeless movements. - It results from central nervous system involvement and is a highly diagnostic sign, often appearing late in the disease course. *Arthritis* - **Migratory polyarthritis** is a **major criterion** for acute rheumatic fever, typically affecting large joints in a sequential pattern. - This symptom is often the presenting complaint and is highly responsive to anti-inflammatory treatment. *Carditis* - **Carditis**, involving inflammation of the heart muscle, pericardium, or endocardium, is a **major criterion** and the most serious manifestation of acute rheumatic fever. - It can lead to long-term valvular damage, particularly affecting the mitral and aortic valves.
Question 2: To prevent acute rheumatic fever, acute pharyngitis due to group A streptococci should be treated with antibiotics before:
- A. 10 days of illness
- B. 7 days of illness
- C. 8 days of illness
- D. 9 days of illness (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***9 days of illness*** - Treatment of **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)** pharyngitis with appropriate antibiotics within **9 days** of symptom onset effectively prevents subsequent acute rheumatic fever. - This timeframe is crucial because it allows for clearance of the bacteria before the immune response that triggers **rheumatic fever** becomes fully established. *10 days of illness* - This duration is **beyond** the optimal window for preventing acute rheumatic fever, as the immune response may already be sufficient to initiate the disease process. - While still beneficial for symptom resolution, antibiotic treatment initiated at this point is **less effective** in preventing the sequelae of rheumatic fever. *7 days of illness* - Administering antibiotics within **7 days** of illness is highly effective and falls within the appropriate treatment window for preventing acute rheumatic fever [2]. - However, **9 days provides a slightly longer, yet still effective, cutoff**, making prevention of rheumatic fever still possible within this slightly extended period. *8 days of illness* - Antibiotic treatment at **8 days of illness** is still considered within the therapeutic window for preventing acute rheumatic fever [2]. - The goal is to clear the infection and prevent the immune system from mounting the **autoimmune response** that leads to cardiac damage [1].
Question 3: A 7 year old child with a known history of rheumatic heart disease presents with a 3 weeks history of fever with palpitations. Most likely cause is:
- A. Kawasaki's disease
- B. Staphylococcal endocarditis (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Collagen vascular disease
Explanation: **Staphylococcal endocarditis** - Children with **rheumatic heart disease** are at increased risk for **infective endocarditis** due to pre-existing valvular damage. - The symptoms of **fever** and **palpitations** over 3 weeks in a child with a predisposing cardiac condition are highly suggestive of subacute bacterial endocarditis, with *Staphylococcus* being a common pathogen. *Kawasaki's disease* - **Kawasaki's disease** is characterized by fever for at least 5 days, along with specific criteria such as **conjunctivitis**, **oral changes**, **rash**, and **lymphadenopathy**, which are not mentioned here. - Although it can cause cardiac complications like **coronary artery aneurysms**, it does not typically present with palpitations in the context of pre-existing rheumatic heart disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Staphylococcal endocarditis** is a highly plausible diagnosis given the clinical presentation. - The combination of **rheumatic heart disease**, prolonged fever, and palpitations strongly points towards a specific cardiac infection. *Collagen vascular disease* - **Collagen vascular diseases** like SLE or juvenile idiopathic arthritis can present with fever, but **palpitations** in a child with pre-existing **rheumatic heart disease** is less specific for these conditions. - These diseases typically have other systemic manifestations, such as **arthralgia**, **rash**, or **organ involvement**, which are not described.
Question 4: An 11-year-old child with a history of streptococcal pharyngitis presents you with fever and arthralgia. There is no past history of rheumatic heart disease or features of carditis or valvular disease. How often is 600,000 IU of benzathine penicillin recommended for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
- A. Immediately
- B. Thrice weekly lifelong
- C. Once in three weeks for 10 years or till the age of 25, whichever is longer
- D. Once in three weeks for 5 years or till the age of 18, whichever is longer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Once in three weeks for 5 years or till the age of 18, whichever is longer*** - For patients with a history of **rheumatic fever** but **no carditis**, secondary prophylaxis with benzathine penicillin G is recommended for **5 years** or until **age 18**, whichever is longer. - The usual dose of benzathine penicillin G for children (under 27 kg) is **600,000 IU** intramuscularly every 3-4 weeks. *Immediately* - This option refers to the timing of initial treatment for **streptococcal pharyngitis**, not the duration or frequency of secondary prophylaxis. - Initiating antibiotic treatment immediately for acute strep throat prevents **acute rheumatic fever**, but long-term prophylaxis follows guidelines. *Thrice weekly lifelong* - This frequency is incorrect; secondary prophylaxis is typically given every **3-4 weeks**, not three times a week. - Lifelong prophylaxis is generally reserved for patients with severe **rheumatic heart disease** or those undergoing valve replacement, which is not the case here. *Once in three weeks for 10 years or till the age of 25, whichever is longer* - This duration is recommended for patients with **rheumatic fever with carditis but no residual heart disease**. - For patients with **carditis** and **residual heart disease**, prophylaxis is often extended for **10 years** or until **age 40**, or even lifelong in severe cases.
Question 5: A 10-year-old boy with a 2-week history of an upper respiratory infection was admitted to the hospital with malaise, fever, joint swelling and diffuse rash. The patient is treated and discharged. However, the patient suffers from recurrent pharyngitis and a few years later, develops a heart murmur. This patient's heart murmur is most likely caused by exposure to which of the following pathogens?
- A. Epstein-Barr virus
- B. Streptococcus viridans
- C. Candida albicans
- D. Beta-hemolytic streptococcus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Beta-hemolytic streptococcus - The history of an **upper respiratory infection**, followed by **joint swelling**, **rash**, and later a **heart murmur**, strongly suggests Rheumatic Fever, which is caused by a preceding infection with **Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS)** [2]. - Recurrent pharyngitis (strep throat) is a key risk factor for developing Rheumatic Fever and its cardiac sequelae, as the immune response to GAS antigens leads to **molecular mimicry** affecting heart valves [1], [2]. ### Epstein-Barr virus - This virus primarily causes **infectious mononucleosis**, characterized by fatigue, fever, and lymphadenopathy, but it is not directly associated with the development of rheumatic heart disease or a new-onset heart murmur in this context. - While EBV can cause various symptoms, **cardiac involvement is rare** and typically presents as myocarditis or pericarditis, not a progressive valvular disease. ### Streptococcus viridans - *Streptococcus viridans* is a common cause of **subacute bacterial endocarditis**, especially in patients with pre-existing valvular heart disease [1]. - However, it does not typically cause the initial constellation of symptoms (joint swelling, rash) associated with **Rheumatic Fever**, nor is it linked to recurrent pharyngitis in the same way as Group A Streptococcus. ### Candida albicans - This is a **fungal pathogen** that can cause opportunistic infections, including candidemia or endocarditis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals or those with intravenous drug use. - It is not associated with the initial presentation of fever, arthralgia, rash, or recurrent pharyngitis described in the case, and does not cause **rheumatic heart disease**.
Question 6: All of the following can occur in rheumatic fever except?
- A. Mitral regurgitation
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Tricuspid regurgitation as the primary valve lesion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tricuspid regurgitation as the primary valve lesion*** - While **rheumatic fever** can affect any heart valve, the **tricuspid valve** is rarely affected as the **primary or sole lesion**. - It is most commonly seen in conjunction with more severe **mitral and aortic valve disease**. *Mitral regurgitation* - **Mitral regurgitation** is a common manifestation of **acute rheumatic fever**, occurring due to **inflammation** of the valve leaflets and **chordae tendineae** [1]. - This leads to incompetence of the valve, causing blood to flow back into the left atrium during systole [1]. *Mitral stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** is a classic **long-term complication** of **rheumatic fever**, typically developing years to decades after the initial acute episode. - Repeated inflammation and scarring lead to **thickening and fusion of the mitral valve leaflets**, restricting blood flow. *Pericarditis* - **Pericarditis**, inflammation of the **pericardium** (the sac surrounding the heart), is a possible manifestation of **rheumatic carditis** in acute rheumatic fever [1]. - It can cause chest pain and may be accompanied by a **pericardial effusion** [1].
Question 7: Which of the following is a minor criterion for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Subcutaneous nodules
- B. Carditis
- C. Chorea
- D. Fever (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fever*** - **Fever** is a minor diagnostic criterion for **acute rheumatic fever** (ARF), indicating systemic inflammation [1]. - While non-specific, its presence alongside other criteria supports the diagnosis, particularly in the context of recent streptococcal infection. *Subcutaneous nodules* - **Subcutaneous nodules** are a **major criterion** for ARF, typically firm, painless lumps found over bony prominences. - Their presence indicates more severe, chronic inflammation in ARF. *Carditis* - **Carditis** is a **major criterion** for ARF, referring to inflammation of the heart, which can affect the pericardium, myocardium, or endocardium [1]. - It is the most serious manifestation of ARF, as it can lead to permanent **rheumatic heart disease** [2]. *Chorea* - **Chorea** (specifically **Sydenham chorea**) is a **major criterion** for ARF, characterized by involuntary, jerky movements, often presenting late in the disease course [1]. - It results from inflammation affecting the basal ganglia.
Question 8: Which of the following cyanotic congenital heart disease is associated with increased risk of chest infections?
- A. Tetralogy of Fallot
- B. Truncus arteriosus (Correct Answer)
- C. Tricuspid atresia
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Truncus arteriosus*** - This condition involves a single great artery overriding a **ventricular septal defect**, leading to mixed systemic and pulmonary blood flow. - The **unrestricted pulmonary blood flow** results in **pulmonary hypertension** and edema, making the lungs vulnerable to frequent infections. *Tetralogy of Fallot* - Characterized by **reduced pulmonary blood flow** due to **pulmonary stenosis**, which typically protects the lungs from overload. - While patients can experience complications, an increased risk of frequent chest infections due to pulmonary overcirculation is not a primary feature. *Tricuspid atresia* - Involves the absence of the **tricuspid valve**, leading to mixing of blood in the atria and systemic circulation of deoxygenated blood. - Pulmonary blood flow can be reduced or normal, but severe pulmonary overcirculation leading to recurrent chest infections is not a hallmark. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Truncus arteriosus** is indeed strongly associated with an increased risk of chest infections.
Question 9: A 29-day-old child presents with features of congestive cardiac failure and left ventricular hypertrophy. Auscultation shows a short systolic murmur. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Rheumatic fever
- B. Transposition of great arteries
- C. Tetralogy of Fallot
- D. Ventricular septal defect (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ventricular septal defect*** - A **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** causes a left-to-right shunt, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and can result in **congestive cardiac failure** and **left ventricular hypertrophy** as pulmonary vascular resistance drops in the first few weeks of life. - Large VSDs typically present with a **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the left lower sternal border; however, in the early neonatal period or with muscular VSDs, the murmur may be **shorter and less prominent** as pulmonary resistance is still relatively elevated. - Among the given options, VSD is the **most likely acyanotic heart defect** to present with CHF and LVH in this age group. *Rheumatic fever* - **Rheumatic fever** is an inflammatory disease following **Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis**, typically occurring in children **over 3 years of age**. - It is **extremely rare in infants** and would not explain CHF and LVH in a 29-day-old neonate. *Transposition of great arteries* - **Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)** is a cyanotic congenital heart defect where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle. - Infants with TGA present with **severe cyanosis within hours to days of birth**, not primarily CHF. - The murmur is often **absent or soft** unless there is an associated VSD or PDA. *Tetralogy of Fallot* - **Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)** is a cyanotic heart disease with four components: VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and **right ventricular hypertrophy** (not left). - Infants present with **cyanosis** (not CHF) and a **loud systolic ejection murmur** at the left upper sternal border due to pulmonary stenosis. - The pathophysiology leads to **RVH, not LVH**, making this inconsistent with the clinical findings.
Question 10: Congenital cyanotic heart disease with pulmonary oligemia is seen with –
- A. VSD
- B. Hypoplastic left ventricle
- C. ASD
- D. Tricuspid atresia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tricuspid atresia*** - **Tricuspid atresia** is a **cyanotic congenital heart disease** where the tricuspid valve is absent, preventing blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle, leading to **pulmonary hypoperfusion** or **oligemia**. - Systemic venous return must shunt across an **atrial septal defect (ASD)** or **patent foramen ovale (PFO)** to the left atrium, mixing with oxygenated blood, resulting in cyanosis. - Chest X-ray characteristically shows **decreased pulmonary vascular markings** (oligemia). *VSD* - A **Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)** typically causes a **left-to-right shunt**, leading to **pulmonary plethora (increased pulmonary blood flow)**, not oligemia. - While large VSDs can eventually lead to Eisenmenger syndrome with cyanosis, the initial presentation is usually characterized by increased pulmonary flow. *Hypoplastic left ventricle* - **Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)** is a **cyanotic** condition, but it results in **pulmonary plethora (increased pulmonary blood flow)**, not oligemia. - All systemic venous return flows to the right ventricle, which pumps to both the pulmonary arteries (normal pathway) and to the systemic circulation via a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, resulting in normal or increased pulmonary blood flow. - The primary issue is a severely underdeveloped left side of the heart, which does not lead to pulmonary oligemia. *ASD* - An **Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)** usually causes a **left-to-right shunt**, leading to **pulmonary plethora (increased pulmonary blood flow)** and is typically an **acyanotic** heart condition. - Cyanosis only develops late if pulmonary hypertension leads to shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome), which is not the primary presentation.
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