Pathology of Vascular Interventions — MCQs
A patient posted for Lap Cholecystectomy had drug eluting stent placed two years back. Patient has no symptoms since then. Which of the following set of investigation should be done in this patient?
Which type of necrosis is characterized by deposition of immune complexes and fibrin in the walls of blood vessels?
A patient underwent a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) using the great saphenous vein. Post-surgery, the patient experiences neuralgia on the medial aspect of the leg and foot. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Coronary steal syndrome is associated with
A 48-year-old male patient is scheduled to undergo coronary arterial bypass surgery due to chronic angina. Coronary arteriography reveals nearly total blockage of the posterior descending interventricular artery. When exposing this artery to perform the bypass procedure, which accompanying vessel is most at risk of injury?
Sclerotherapy for varicose veins is contraindicated in the following condition:
Monckeberg's calcific sclerosis primarily affects which layer of the medium-sized muscular arteries?
Choroidal neovascularization is most commonly seen in which of the following refractive errors?
Underwater autopsy of the heart is done in cases of: DNB 09
Large, white keratic precipitates (mutton-fat KPs) are characteristically seen in?
Pathology of Vascular Interventions Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A patient posted for Lap Cholecystectomy had drug eluting stent placed two years back. Patient has no symptoms since then. Which of the following set of investigation should be done in this patient?
- A. Coronary angiography, Thallium scan
- B. ECG, CBC, Coronary angiography
- C. ECG, CBC, Stress echocardiography (Correct Answer)
- D. ECG, CBC, Stress echocardiography, coronary angiography
Explanation: **ECG, CBC, Stress echocardiography** - A patient with a **drug-eluting stent (DES)** placed two years prior, who is now asymptomatic, typically requires a **non-invasive cardiac assessment** before surgery. [1] - **Stress echocardiography** is an appropriate investigation to assess for inducible ischemia in an asymptomatic patient with a history of DES, especially when determining readiness for non-cardiac surgery. [1] *Coronary angiography, Thallium scan* - **Coronary angiography** is an invasive procedure and is generally not indicated for asymptomatic patients two years post-DES unless there are new symptoms or high-risk findings on non-invasive tests. [2] - A **Thallium scan** (myocardial perfusion scintigraphy) is a valid stress test, but **stress echocardiography** provides similar information regarding ischemia and ventricular function without radiation exposure. [1] *ECG, CBC, Coronary angiography* - While **ECG** and **CBC** are standard preoperative tests, **coronary angiography** is an invasive procedure and is not the first-line investigation for an asymptomatic patient two years post-DES without other indications. [2] - The patient's asymptomatic status suggests that invasive testing is not immediately warranted for surgical clearance. *ECG, CBC, Stress echocardiography, coronary angiography* - Performing both **stress echocardiography** and **coronary angiography** in an asymptomatic patient two years after DES placement is **redundant** and subjects the patient to an unnecessary invasive procedure. [1], [2] - The results of a non-invasive stress test like stress echocardiography would guide the need for any further invasive intervention.
Question 2: Which type of necrosis is characterized by deposition of immune complexes and fibrin in the walls of blood vessels?
- A. Liquefactive necrosis
- B. Coagulative necrosis
- C. Caseous necrosis
- D. Fibrinoid necrosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fibrinoid necrosis*** - This type of necrosis is classically associated with **immune-mediated vascular damage**, where antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in arterial walls [2]. - The microscopic appearance is characterized by bright pink, amorphous material composed of **fibrin and immune complexes**, giving a fibrin-like staining pattern [1]. *Liquefactive necrosis* - Characterized by the **dissolution of dead cells into a viscous liquid mass**, often seen in bacterial infections or brain infarcts. - The necrotic tissue is replaced by inflammatory cells and fluid, rather than immune complex deposits. *Coagulative necrosis* - Occurs due to **ischemia**, leading to protein denaturation and preservation of cell outlines for a period. - It does not involve the deposition of immune complexes or fibrin in vessel walls. *Caseous necrosis* - A form of coagulative necrosis associated with **tuberculosis**, characterized by a friable, "cheese-like" appearance. - It primarily involves granulomatous inflammation and macrophage accumulation, not immune complex deposition in blood vessels. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 514-518. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 214-242.
Question 3: A patient underwent a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) using the great saphenous vein. Post-surgery, the patient experiences neuralgia on the medial aspect of the leg and foot. Which nerve is most likely injured?
- A. Common peroneal nerve
- B. Sural nerve
- C. Tibial nerve
- D. Saphenous nerve (Correct Answer)
- E. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation: ***Saphenous nerve*** - The **saphenous nerve** is a cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve that runs closely with the **great saphenous vein** along the medial aspect of the leg and foot. - Due to its proximity to the vein, it is highly susceptible to **injury** during the harvesting of the great saphenous vein for CABG, leading to **neuralgia** in its sensory distribution. *Common peroneal nerve* - The **common peroneal nerve** innervates the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, affecting dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. - Damage to this nerve typically results in **foot drop** and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, which is inconsistent with the patient's symptoms. *Tibial nerve* - The **tibial nerve** supplies the posterior compartment of the leg and the plantar aspect of the foot. - Injury would cause loss of plantarflexion and sensation on the sole of the foot, which is not described. *Sural nerve* - The **sural nerve** provides sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and the lateral side of the foot and ankle. - While it runs near superficial veins, its sensory distribution does not match the described **medial leg and foot neuralgia**. *Superficial peroneal nerve* - The **superficial peroneal nerve** (superficial fibular nerve) provides sensation to the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg. - Injury would cause sensory loss over the dorsal foot, not the medial aspect of the leg and foot.
Question 4: Coronary steal syndrome is associated with
- A. Sevoflurane
- B. Halothane
- C. Isoflurane (Correct Answer)
- D. Desflurane
Explanation: ***Isoflurane*** - **Isoflurane** is a potent coronary vasodilator which can cause coronary steal syndrome in patients with existing **coronary artery disease**. - It preferentially dilates normal coronary arteries, diverting blood flow away from stenotic areas, potentially worsening **myocardial ischemia**. *Sevoflurane* - **Sevoflurane** is also a vasodilator but is generally considered to have a lower risk of coronary steal compared to isoflurane. - Its vasodilatory effects are less pronounced in diseased arteries, making it a safer option for patients with **ischemic heart disease**. *Halothane* - **Halothane** is known for myocardial depression and arrhythmias, but its coronary dilating properties are less pronounced and it is infrequently associated with coronary steal. - It is an older inhalational anesthetic that has largely been replaced due to its side effect profile, including potential **hepatotoxicity**. *Desflurane* - **Desflurane** is a potent vasodilator, similar to isoflurane, but it typically causes peripheral vasodilation rather than significant coronary steal. - Its rapid onset and offset are beneficial, but it can cause **tachycardia** and **hypertension** with rapid increases in concentration.
Question 5: A 48-year-old male patient is scheduled to undergo coronary arterial bypass surgery due to chronic angina. Coronary arteriography reveals nearly total blockage of the posterior descending interventricular artery. When exposing this artery to perform the bypass procedure, which accompanying vessel is most at risk of injury?
- A. Middle cardiac vein (Correct Answer)
- B. Great cardiac vein
- C. Anterior cardiac vein
- D. Small cardiac vein
Explanation: ***Middle cardiac vein*** - The **posterior descending interventricular artery** runs in the **posterior interventricular groove** along with the **middle cardiac vein**. - During surgical exposure or manipulation of the posterior descending interventricular artery, the closely associated middle cardiac vein is at high risk of injury. *Great cardiac vein* - The **great cardiac vein** runs in the **anterior interventricular groove** with the anterior interventricular artery (left anterior descending artery). - It is located on the anterior surface of the heart, anatomically distant from the posterior descending interventricular artery. *Anterior cardiac vein* - The **anterior cardiac veins** typically drain directly into the right atrium and are found on the anterior surface of the right ventricle. - They do not accompany the posterior descending interventricular artery. *Small cardiac vein* - The **small cardiac vein** runs in the right atrioventricular (coronary) groove, often alongside the right marginal artery and sometimes the right coronary artery. - While it drains parts of the right ventricle, it is not found in the posterior interventricular groove with the posterior descending interventricular artery.
Question 6: Sclerotherapy for varicose veins is contraindicated in the following condition:
- A. Deep vein Thrombosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Varicose ulcers
- C. Pigmentation Over limb
- D. Hemorrhoids
Explanation: ***Deep vein Thrombosis*** - **Sclerotherapy** involves injecting a solution that irritates and scars the vein, causing it to close. If **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** is present, this procedure could dislodge a **thrombus**, leading to a potentially fatal **pulmonary embolism**. - Additionally, DVT indicates a compromised deep venous system, and treating superficial veins with sclerotherapy when the deep system is inadequate can lead to **worsened venous insufficiency** and complications. *Varicose ulcers* - **Varicose ulcers** are often a complication of **venous insufficiency**, and **sclerotherapy** can sometimes be used cautiously, in conjunction with compression therapy, to treat the underlying insufficient veins that contribute to ulcer formation. - While it's not a universal treatment for all ulcers, the presence of an ulcer itself is not an absolute **contraindication** if the underlying venous pathology can be safely addressed. *Pigmentation Over limb* - **Pigmentation over the limb** (often **hyperpigmentation**) is a common sign of **chronic venous insufficiency** and a cosmetic concern associated with **varicose veins**. - It is not a contraindication to **sclerotherapy**; in fact, successful treatment of the underlying varicose veins can sometimes lead to an improvement in or prevention of further pigmentation. *Hemorrhoids* - **Hemorrhoids** are essentially **varicose veins** of the **anorectal region**. While **sclerotherapy** can be used to treat hemorrhoids (a procedure called sclerotherapy for hemorrhoids), they are distinct from **lower limb varicose veins**. - The presence of hemorrhoids does not contraindicate **sclerotherapy** for leg varicose veins, as they are separate vascular systems and pathologies.
Question 7: Monckeberg's calcific sclerosis primarily affects which layer of the medium-sized muscular arteries?
- A. Intima
- B. Media (Correct Answer)
- C. Adventitia
- D. Intima and Media
Explanation: ***Media*** - Monckeberg's calcific sclerosis, also known as **medial calcinosis**, specifically involves the **tunica media** of medium-sized muscular arteries. - This condition is characterized by **calcific deposits** within the smooth muscle layer of the artery wall, without significant luminal narrowing. - Classic "**tram-track**" or "railroad track" appearance on imaging due to medial calcification. *Intima* - The **intima** is primarily affected in **atherosclerosis**, where plaque formation occurs within this innermost layer. - Monckeberg's sclerosis is distinct from atherosclerosis and does not involve significant intimal thickening or lipid deposition. *Adventitia* - The **adventitia** is the outermost layer of the arterial wall, providing structural support and containing nerves and vasa vasorum. - Monckeberg's calcification does not typically involve this layer. *Intima and Media* - While Monckeberg's sclerosis **exclusively affects the media**, this option incorrectly suggests intimal involvement. - The pathognomonic feature of Monckeberg's is its **restriction to the medial layer**, distinguishing it from atherosclerosis.
Question 8: Choroidal neovascularization is most commonly seen in which of the following refractive errors?
- A. Myopia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypermetropia
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Astigmatism
Explanation: ***Myopia*** - High myopia, particularly **pathologic myopia** (>6D or axial length >26mm), is a significant risk factor for **choroidal neovascularization (CNV)** among refractive errors due to the elongation of the eyeball stretching and thinning the choroid and Bruch's membrane. - The mechanical stress and associated **degenerative changes** in the posterior segment can lead to ruptures in Bruch's membrane, facilitating the growth of new, fragile blood vessels from the choroid into the subretinal space. - **Pathologic myopia** is the **second most common cause of CNV overall** (after age-related macular degeneration) and the **most common cause in patients under 50 years**. *Hypermetropia* - Hypermetropia (farsightedness) is associated with a **shorter axial length** of the eye, which generally reduces the risk of the structural changes that predispose to CNV. - While other conditions can cause CNV, hypermetropia itself is **not a risk factor** for its development. *Presbyopia* - Presbyopia is an **age-related loss of accommodation** due to hardening of the lens and weakening of the ciliary muscle, affecting near vision. - It is a refractive change related to the lens's flexibility and **not directly to the structural changes** in the choroid or retina that lead to CNV. *Astigmatism* - Astigmatism is a refractive error where the eye's cornea or lens has **irregular curvature**, causing blurred vision at all distances. - It is a **surface curvature issue** and does not typically involve the deep structural changes in the choroid or retina that are conducive to choroidal neovascularization.
Question 9: Underwater autopsy of the heart is done in cases of: DNB 09
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Air embolism (Correct Answer)
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Myocardial infarction
Explanation: ***Air embolism*** - An underwater autopsy of the heart is specifically performed to detect **air embolism**. The heart, or parts of it, are submerged in water during incision, allowing any gas (air) released to be observed as bubbles rising to the surface. - This technique helps confirm the presence of **intracardiac air**, which is crucial in diagnosing fatal air embolism. *Pneumothorax* - While pneumothorax involves the presence of air, it occurs in the **pleural space**, not within the heart. - Diagnosis of pneumothorax at autopsy primarily involves checking for **collapsed lung lobes** and gas in the pleural cavity, not specific cardiac examination. *Pulmonary embolism* - Pulmonary embolism involves a **blood clot** (thrombus) obstructing pulmonary arteries, not air. - Autopsy diagnosis focuses on identifying the **thrombus** within the pulmonary vasculature. *Myocardial infarction* - Myocardial infarction is characterized by **heart muscle necrosis** due to ischemia, not air. - Diagnosis involves macroscopic and microscopic examination of the **myocardium** for signs of infarction such as pallor, hemorrhage, or inflammatory infiltrates.
Question 10: Large, white keratic precipitates (mutton-fat KPs) are characteristically seen in?
- A. Hemorrhagic uveitis
- B. Old healed uveitis
- C. Granulomatous uveitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Acute anterior uveitis
Explanation: ***Granulomatous uveitis*** - **Mutton-fat keratic precipitates (KPs)** are large, greasy-appearing white deposits on the corneal endothelium, characteristic of **granulomatous inflammation**. - These KPs are composed of macrophages and epithelioid cells, reflecting a **chronic, cell-mediated immune response** seen in granulomatous conditions. *Hemorrhagic uveitis* - This condition involves significant **intraocular bleeding**, which would manifest as hyphema or vitreous hemorrhage, not mutton-fat KPs. - While inflammation may be present, the defining feature is blood, which obscures vision differently than KPs. *Old healed uveitis* - After uveitis heals, KP morphology can change, often appearing smaller, more pigmented, or forming distinct patterns such as **Arlt's triangle**, but not typically actively large, white mutton-fat KPs. - Healed KPs often reflect a less active or resolved inflammatory process, unlike fresh mutton-fat KPs. *Acute anterior uveitis* - This typically presents with smaller, finer, and more numerous **non-granulomatous KPs** (sometimes called "stellate KPs"), in contrast to the large, greasy mutton-fat KPs. - The inflammation is usually acute and less focally organized compared to granulomatous forms.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free