Neoplasia Practice Questions

Q: HMB 45 is a tumor marker for which of the following?

Malignant melanoma. **Explanation:** **Malignant Melanoma (Correct Answer):** HMB-45 (Human Melanoma Black-45) is a highly specific monoclonal antibody used in immunohistochemistry (IHC) to identify melanocytic tumors [1]. It reacts against **gp100**, a cytotoxic T-cell-recognized antigen found in **pre-melanosomes**. It is particularly useful in distinguishing amelanotic melanoma from other poorly differentiated tumors. While highly specific, it is less sensitive than S-100 or SOX10, as it may be negative in desmoplastic melanomas. **Incorrect Options:** * **Neuroblastoma:** This is a small round blue cell tumor of childhood [2]. Key markers include **NSE (Neuron Specific Enolase)**, Chromogranin, Synaptophysin, and urinary VMA/HVA levels. * **Neurofibroma:** These are benign nerve sheath tumors. The primary marker is **S-100** (though less intense than in Schwannomas). They do not contain premelanosomes and are HMB-45 negative. * **Angiosarcoma:** This is a malignant vascular tumor. It expresses endothelial markers such as **CD31** (most specific), CD34, and Von Willebrand Factor (Factor VIII-related antigen). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Melanoma Marker Trio:** S-100 (Most sensitive), HMB-45 (Highly specific), and **SOX10** (Excellent for both primary and metastatic melanoma) [1]. * **Melan-A (MART-1):** Another specific marker for melanocytic differentiation often tested alongside HMB-45. * **Vimentin:** Almost all melanomas are Vimentin positive (mesenchymal origin), but it is non-specific. * **Rule Out:** In a **References:** [1] Author A. "Self-citation in scientific papers on Alzheimer's disease." [2] A chatbot. "This is a sample document for testing purpouse."

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of neoplastic cells?

Nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:4. **Explanation:** The hallmark of neoplastic cells, particularly malignant ones, is **anaplasia** (lack of differentiation) [1]. This manifests as several morphological changes in the nucleus and cytoplasm [1]. **Why Option D is the correct answer:** In normal, mature cells, the **Nuclear-to-Cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio** is typically **1:4 or 1:6**. In neoplastic cells, the nucleus enlarges significantly while the cytoplasm remains scanty, leading to an **increased N:C ratio**, often reaching **1:1**. Therefore, a ratio of 1:4 represents a normal cellular state, not a neoplastic one. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Hyperchromasia:** Neoplastic cells exhibit dark-staining nuclei due to an abundance of DNA and chromatin [1]. This is a classic feature of malignancy. * **B. Pleomorphism:** This refers to variation in the size and shape of both cells and nuclei [1]. It is a fundamental feature of anaplasia. * **C. Atypical mitoses:** While increased mitotic activity can occur in normal hyperplasia, the presence of **atypical (tripolar, quadripolar, or "bird’s eye") mitotic figures** is a highly specific indicator of malignancy [1]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most important criterion of malignancy:** Metastasis (except for Gliomas and Basal Cell Carcinoma). * **Most reliable morphological sign of malignancy:** Invasiveness (breaching the basement membrane). * **Anaplasia vs. Dysplasia:** Anaplasia is a lack of differentiation (often irreversible) [2], whereas dysplasia is disordered growth (potentially reversible if the stimulus is removed) [2]. * **Nucleoli:** Neoplastic cells often show prominent, large nucleoli due to active RNA synthesis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 276-278. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 278-280.

Question 1

Aflatoxin B is associated with which malignancy?

Accepted Answer

Liver

Answer

Lung

Answer

Kidney

Answer

Stomach

Question 2

HMB 45 is a tumor marker for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Malignant melanoma

Answer

Neuroblastoma

Answer

Neurofibroma

Answer

Angiosarcoma

Question 3

Which of the following viral families is known to be causally associated with tumor formation in healthy-appearing human adults?

Accepted Answer

Papovaviruses

Answer

Flaviviruses

Answer

Paramyxoviruses

Answer

Polyoma viruses

Question 4

Serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration is elevated in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Hepatoma

Answer

Cirrhosis

Answer

Endodermal sinus tumor

Question 5

Which of the following agents can cause oral cancers?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Syphilitic glossitis

Answer

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Answer

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Question 6

Pericyte formation occurs in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Myopericytoma

Answer

Kaposi's sarcoma

Answer

Glomus tumor

Answer

Hemangiopericytoma

Question 7

A patient presents with breast carcinoma, and investigations reveal involvement of the contralateral breast. What is the likely histological subtype?

Accepted Answer

Lobular carcinoma

Answer

Inflammatory carcinoma

Answer

Colloid carcinoma

Answer

In situ carcinoma

Question 8

Which is the most common site of metastatic disease?

Accepted Answer

Liver

Answer

Lung

Answer

Bone

Answer

Brain

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a feature of neoplastic cells?

Accepted Answer

Nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:4

Answer

Hyperchromasia

Answer

Pleomorphism

Answer

Atypical mitoses

Question 10

Tumorigenesis in aging is due to

Accepted Answer

Telomerase reactivation

Answer

Telomerase inactivation

Answer

Increased apoptosis

Answer

Suppression of proto-oncogenes

Neoplasia — MCQs

Neoplasia — MCQs

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