Neoplasia — MCQs
On this page
BRAF acts as a main proto-oncogene in which of the following conditions?
Which of the following conditions is associated with an increase in alpha-fetoprotein?
All of the following are invasive carcinoma of the breast except?
A 41-year-old man presented with a 9-month history of cough, exertional dyspnea, nocturnal diaphoresis, and 10 kg weight loss. Physical examination revealed painless, massive, discrete, rubbery cervical, supraclavicular, and axillary lymphadenopathy. Chest radiography showed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Serum calcium level was elevated at 16.2 mg/dL, with parathyroid hormone within the normal range. What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?
Which congenital syndrome is associated with lymphoproliferative malignancy?
Which malignancies most commonly metastasize to the jaws?
Carcinomas of all of the following sites metastasize to the vertebral column except?
Which gene is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis?
In the TNM staging system, what does the 'N' represent?
BRCA 1 gene is located on which chromosome arm?
Neoplasia Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: BRAF acts as a main proto-oncogene in which of the following conditions?
- A. Hairy cell leukemia
- B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
- C. Melanoma
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **BRAF gene** encodes a protein belonging to the RAF family of serine/threonine kinases. It is a vital component of the **MAPK/ERK signaling pathway**, which regulates cell growth, proliferation, and survival. Mutations in BRAF, most commonly the **V600E mutation** (substitution of valine by glutamic acid at codon 600) [2], lead to constitutive activation of this pathway, driving oncogenesis [1]. **Why "All of the Above" is correct:** * **Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL):** The BRAF V600E mutation is considered a "defining" genetic event in HCL, present in nearly **100% of cases** [2]. It serves as a critical diagnostic marker to differentiate HCL from other B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders. * **Melanoma:** BRAF mutations are found in approximately **40-60% of cutaneous melanomas** [1]. This discovery led to the development of targeted therapies like Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib. * **Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH):** BRAF V600E mutations are identified in about **50-60% of LCH cases** [2], establishing it as a neoplastic process rather than a reactive one. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma:** BRAF V600E is the most common mutation (approx. 45%) and is often associated with a poorer prognosis. 2. **Colon Cancer:** BRAF mutations are seen in about 10% of cases, typically associated with the **microsatellite instability (MSI)** pathway and serrated polyps. 3. **Targeted Therapy:** The presence of BRAF mutations allows for the use of **BRAF inhibitors** (e.g., Vemurafenib), which have revolutionized the treatment of metastatic melanoma and refractory HCL [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1150-1151. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 629-630.
Question 352: Which of the following conditions is associated with an increase in alpha-fetoprotein?
- A. Hepatoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Neuroblastoma
- C. Thymoma
- D. Angiosarcoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is a glycoprotein normally produced by the fetal liver and yolk sac. In pathology, it serves as a crucial tumor marker for specific germ cell tumors and hepatic malignancies. **Why Hepatoblastoma is correct:** Hepatoblastoma is the most common primary liver tumor in children (usually <3 years) [1]. Since it originates from primitive hepatic precursor cells, it characteristically secretes very high levels of AFP. Monitoring AFP levels is essential for the diagnosis, assessment of treatment response, and detection of recurrence in these patients. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Neuroblastoma:** This is a neural crest-derived tumor (common in the adrenal medulla). It is associated with elevated urinary catecholamine metabolites (**VMA and HVA**) [3], not AFP. * **C. Thymoma:** This tumor of the thymic epithelium is associated with **Myasthenia Gravis** and pure red cell aplasia. It does not produce AFP. * **D. Angiosarcoma:** A malignant vascular tumor (often linked to vinyl chloride or Thorotrast exposure in the liver). It does not secrete AFP; its markers include **CD31 and Factor VIII-related antigen**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Differential Diagnosis for Elevated AFP:** 1. **Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC):** The most common adult association [2]. 2. **Yolk Sac Tumor (Endodermal Sinus Tumor):** AFP is the highly specific marker here (look for *Schiller-Duval bodies*). 3. **Neural Tube Defects (NTD):** Elevated AFP in maternal serum/amniotic fluid (e.g., Anencephaly, Spina bifida). 4. **Cirrhosis/Hepatitis:** Mild elevations can occur during liver regeneration. * **Decreased AFP** in maternal serum is a screening marker for **Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)**. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 875-876. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 399-400. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 419-420.
Question 353: All of the following are invasive carcinoma of the breast except?
- A. Comedo carcinoma
- B. Colloid carcinoma
- C. Lobular carcinoma in situ
- D. Medullary carcinoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation The question asks to identify which of the listed options is **not** an invasive carcinoma. However, there is a discrepancy in the provided key: **Lobular Carcinoma In Situ (LCIS)** is the correct answer for being non-invasive, while Medullary carcinoma is a subtype of invasive breast cancer. [1] #### 1. Why Lobular Carcinoma In Situ (LCIS) is the Correct Answer By definition, **"In Situ"** means the malignant cells are confined within the basement membrane of the acini and ducts. LCIS is a non-invasive proliferation of small, discohesive cells (due to loss of **E-cadherin**). It is often an incidental finding and serves more as a risk factor for developing invasive cancer in either breast rather than being a direct precursor. #### 2. Analysis of Other Options * **Medullary Carcinoma:** This is a distinct subtype of **Invasive Carcinoma**. [1] It is characterized by large pleomorphic cells, a syncytial growth pattern, and a prominent lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. Despite its high-grade appearance, it often has a better prognosis than standard invasive ductal carcinoma. [1] * **Colloid (Mucinous) Carcinoma:** An **invasive** subtype characterized by "clusters of tumor cells floating in lakes of extracellular mucin." It typically occurs in older women and has a favorable prognosis. * **Comedo Carcinoma:** This is a subtype of **Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)**. While it is "in situ," the term "Comedo" refers to the central necrosis that can be extruded like a comedone. [2, 3] *Note: If both LCIS and Comedo are present, LCIS is the more classic "non-invasive" marker, but Comedo is also non-invasive.* #### 3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls * **E-cadherin:** Negative in Lobular carcinoma (both in situ and invasive); Positive in Ductal carcinoma. * **Medullary Carcinoma:** Frequently associated with **BRCA1** mutations and is typically "Triple Negative" (ER/PR/HER2 negative). [1] * **Paget Disease of the Nipple:** Always associated with an underlying DCIS or invasive carcinoma. * **Most Common Site:** Upper Outer Quadrant of the breast. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 455-456. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 452-453. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, p. 1062.
Question 354: A 41-year-old man presented with a 9-month history of cough, exertional dyspnea, nocturnal diaphoresis, and 10 kg weight loss. Physical examination revealed painless, massive, discrete, rubbery cervical, supraclavicular, and axillary lymphadenopathy. Chest radiography showed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Serum calcium level was elevated at 16.2 mg/dL, with parathyroid hormone within the normal range. What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?
- A. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) of the mediastinal lymph node
- B. Excisional biopsy of the axillary node (Correct Answer)
- C. CT scan of the chest and abdomen
- D. Core needle biopsy of the neck node
Explanation: The clinical presentation of massive, painless, "rubbery" lymphadenopathy, constitutional "B" symptoms (weight loss, night sweats), and hilar lymphadenopathy in a middle-aged man is highly suggestive of **Lymphoma** (likely Hodgkin Lymphoma) [1]. The hypercalcemia (16.2 mg/dL) is a paraneoplastic manifestation often seen in lymphoid malignancies due to extra-renal production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D by macrophages or tumor cells. **Why Excisional Biopsy is the Correct Choice:** In suspected lymphoma, **Excisional Biopsy** is the gold standard diagnostic investigation. Unlike epithelial tumors, the diagnosis of lymphoma depends heavily on evaluating the **node architecture** (nodular vs. diffuse patterns) and the relationship between malignant cells and the reactive background [2]. An excisional biopsy provides the entire node, ensuring sufficient tissue for morphology, immunohistochemistry (IHC), and molecular studies. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & D (FNAC and Core Needle Biopsy):** FNAC only provides cytological detail and cannot assess tissue architecture, leading to high false-negative rates in lymphoma. Core needle biopsy provides more tissue than FNAC but is often insufficient for definitive subtyping. * **C (CT Scan):** While useful for staging (Ann Arbor staging), imaging is not a diagnostic tool for pathology [1]. A tissue diagnosis must be established first. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Lymphoma Diagnosis:** "Architecture is King." Always prefer excisional biopsy over FNAC. * **Hypercalcemia in Lymphoma:** Usually mediated by 1,25-(OH)₂ Vitamin D (Calcitriol), unlike PTHrP-mediated hypercalcemia common in Squamous Cell Carcinoma. * **Node Selection:** When multiple nodes are involved, supraclavicular and axillary nodes are preferred over inguinal nodes (which often show chronic inflammatory changes) [3]. * **Rubbery Nodes:** Classically associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma; "Stony hard" nodes suggest metastatic carcinoma. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 556-558. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 616. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618.
Question 355: Which congenital syndrome is associated with lymphoproliferative malignancy?
- A. Bloom syndrome
- B. Fanconi's anemia
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Chediak Higashi syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Chediak-Higashi Syndrome (CHS)** is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the **LYST (Lysosomal Trafficking Regulator) gene**. This defect leads to impaired microtubule-dependent intracellular trafficking and the formation of giant lysosomal granules [1]. While it is characterized by partial albinism and recurrent infections, its progression into the **"accelerated phase"** is what links it to lymphoproliferative malignancy. This phase involves a hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)-like syndrome, where there is an uncontrolled proliferation of lymphocytes and macrophages, often leading to a high-grade lymphoma-like presentation [2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Bloom Syndrome:** Caused by a mutation in the *BLM* gene (DNA helicase), it leads to chromosomal instability. While it increases the risk of various cancers (especially carcinomas and leukemias), it is primarily categorized as a **DNA repair defect** syndrome rather than a primary lymphoproliferative disorder. * **Fanconi’s Anemia:** This is a DNA cross-link repair defect. It characteristically leads to **bone marrow failure** (aplastic anemia) and a high predisposition to **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)** and squamous cell carcinomas, but not typically lymphoproliferative malignancies. * **Turner Syndrome (45, XO):** This is a chromosomal aneuploidy. It is associated with coarctation of the aorta and streak ovaries, but it does not have a recognized primary association with lymphoproliferative malignancies. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Giant Granules:** Look for "giant peroxidase-positive granules" in neutrophils on a peripheral smear [1]. * **Key Triad:** Partial albinism, recurrent pyogenic infections (Staph/Strep), and peripheral neuropathy [1]. * **The "Accelerated Phase":** This is the terminal event in 85% of CHS patients, characterized by massive hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy due to lymphohistiocytic infiltration. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 245-246. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 593-594.
Question 356: Which malignancies most commonly metastasize to the jaws?
- A. Lung
- B. Prostate
- C. Colorectal
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** Metastatic tumors to the jaws are relatively rare, accounting for approximately 1% of all oral malignancies. However, they are clinically significant because, in about 25% of cases, the jaw lesion is the first sign of an undiagnosed distant primary cancer. **Why "All of the above" is correct:** The jaws (particularly the mandible) are a known site for hematogenous spread from primary carcinomas located below the diaphragm and within the thorax. The most common primary sites that metastasize to the jaw bones include: * **Breast and Lung:** These are the most frequent primary sources overall [1], [2]. * **Kidney, Prostate, and Colorectal:** These are also significant contributors, especially in males [1], [3]. The **mandible** is involved far more frequently than the maxilla (ratio of 4:1), likely due to its richer marrow content in the molar and ramus regions in adults, which facilitates the entrapment of circulating tumor cells. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Lung:** A very common primary site in both genders; often presents with rapid growth and pain [2]. * **B. Prostate:** A frequent source in elderly males; these metastases are unique as they may present as **osteoblastic** (radio-opaque) lesions rather than the typical radiolucent "punched-out" appearance [3]. * **C. Colorectal:** A well-documented source of jaw metastasis, often spreading via the Batson venous plexus. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Molar-ramus area of the mandible. * **Clinical Presentation:** Mimics dental infections, presenting with toothache, loosening of teeth, or **numb chin syndrome** (mental nerve involvement). * **Radiographic feature:** Usually an ill-defined, "moth-eaten" radiolucency. * **Primary source by gender:** Breast (Females) and Lung (Males) are the top individual contributors. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 671-672. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 724-725. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 993-994.
Question 357: Carcinomas of all of the following sites metastasize to the vertebral column except?
- A. Breast
- B. Bronchus
- C. Prostate
- D. Esophagus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The vertebral column is one of the most common sites for hematogenous bone metastasis [1]. This occurs primarily through the **Batson’s paravertebral venous plexus**, a valveless system of veins that connects the deep pelvic and thoracic veins to the internal vertebral venous plexus. Because these veins are valveless, changes in intra-abdominal or intra-thoracic pressure allow retrograde flow of tumor emboli directly to the vertebrae, bypassing the caval system and lungs. **Why Esophagus is the Correct Answer:** While esophageal cancer can metastasize to bones in advanced stages, it is **not** among the "classic" group of tumors known for frequent vertebral spread. Esophageal carcinoma typically spreads via direct extension to local structures (trachea, aorta) or via lymphatic spread to mediastinal and celiac nodes. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Prostate (C):** The most common site of bone metastasis in men. It characteristically produces **osteoblastic** (sclerotic) lesions via the Batson plexus [3]. * **Breast (A):** The most common site of bone metastasis in women [1]. It typically produces **mixed** (osteolytic and osteoblastic) lesions. * **Bronchus/Lung (B):** A very common source of bone metastasis, usually producing aggressive **osteolytic** lesions [2]. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mnemonic for Vertebral/Bone Metastasis:** "**PB-KTL**" (Lead Kettle) — **P**rostate, **B**reast, **K**idney (RCC), **T**hyroid, **L**ung [1]. * **Batson’s Plexus:** The key anatomical route for prostate cancer reaching the lumbar spine. * **Lesion Types:** * **Purely Osteoblastic:** Prostate Carcinoma, Carcinoid [3]. * **Purely Osteolytic:** RCC, Thyroid, Multiple Myeloma. * **Mixed:** Breast Carcinoma. * **Most common site for bone metastasis:** Vertebral column (followed by femur and pelvis). **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 671-672. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 724-725. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 993-994.
Question 358: Which gene is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis?
- A. p53
- B. Rb
- C. APC (Correct Answer)
- D. RET
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Option: C. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)** Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the **APC gene**, located on chromosome **5q21**. The APC gene is a classic **tumor suppressor gene** that regulates the Wnt signaling pathway [1]. Under normal conditions, the APC protein facilitates the degradation of **β-catenin** [1]. When APC is mutated, β-catenin accumulates and translocates to the nucleus, where it activates genes (like *MYC* and *Cyclin D1*) that promote cellular proliferation [1], [2]. Clinically, FAP is characterized by the development of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous colonic polyps, with a near 100% risk of progression to colorectal carcinoma if left untreated. **Incorrect Options:** * **A. p53:** Known as the "Guardian of the Genome," it is the most commonly mutated gene in human cancers. Germline mutations lead to **Li-Fraumeni Syndrome**. * **B. Rb:** The retinoblastoma gene (chromosome 13q) is the "Governor of the Cell Cycle." Mutations are associated with **Retinoblastoma** and **Osteosarcoma**. * **C. RET:** A proto-oncogene. Mutations are associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B**, and Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Vogelstein Model:** The "Adenoma-Carcinoma Sequence" typically begins with an **APC mutation** (earliest event), followed by *KRAS* mutation, and finally *p53* loss [2]. * **Gardner Syndrome:** FAP + Osteomas (mandible) + Soft tissue tumors (Desmoid tumors). * **Turcot Syndrome:** FAP + CNS tumors (specifically Medulloblastoma). * **Screening:** Patients with FAP require annual sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy starting at age 10-12. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 304-305. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 819.
Question 359: In the TNM staging system, what does the 'N' represent?
- A. Nature of tumor
- B. Number of tumors
- C. Number of involved lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
- D. Metastasis
Explanation: The **TNM Staging System**, developed by the AJCC (American Joint Committee on Cancer), is the global standard for determining the anatomical extent of malignant tumors [1]. It is a critical prognostic factor and guides treatment protocols. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** **C. Number of involved lymph nodes:** The **'N'** category describes the involvement of regional lymph nodes [1]. It typically ranges from **N0** (no regional node involvement) to **N1, N2, or N3**, depending on the number, size, and specific anatomical location of the affected nodes. In many cancers, the number of positive nodes is the single most important predictor of survival [2]. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **A. Nature of tumor:** This is incorrect. The "nature" (histological type or grade) is described by the **Grade (G)** of the tumor, which assesses cellular differentiation, not the TNM stage. * **B. Number of tumors:** While multiple tumors can influence the 'T' stage (e.g., multifocal breast cancer), the TNM system primarily focuses on the size and extent of the primary tumor (**T**). * **D. Metastasis:** This is represented by the **'M'** component. M0 indicates no distant metastasis, while M1 indicates the presence of distant spread [1]. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **T (Tumor):** Refers to the size and local extent of the primary tumor (T1–T4). **T0** means no evidence of primary tumor; **Tis** means Carcinoma in situ. * **Staging vs. Grading:** Staging (TNM) is generally a **better predictor of prognosis** than Grading (differentiation). * **Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy:** This is the gold standard for assessing the 'N' status in cancers like Melanoma and Breast Cancer to avoid unnecessary radical node dissection [2]. * **Exception:** In certain cancers (like CNS tumors or Leukemias), the TNM system is not used because they do not follow typical lymphatic spread patterns. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, p. 1072. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1070-1072.
Question 360: BRCA 1 gene is located on which chromosome arm?
- A. 11q
- B. 13q
- C. 17q (Correct Answer)
- D. 19q
Explanation: The **BRCA1 (Breast Cancer 1)** gene is a critical tumor suppressor gene located on the **long arm (q) of chromosome 17**, specifically at position **17q21**. It encodes a protein involved in the repair of double-stranded DNA breaks via homologous recombination [1]. Mutations in this gene significantly increase the risk of hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndromes [1]. **Analysis of Options:** * **17q (Correct):** This is the locus for **BRCA1**. A helpful mnemonic is "BRCA**1** is on **17" (both contain the digit 7). It is also the location of the **TP53** gene (17p) and **HER2/neu** (17q) [2]. * **13q (Incorrect):** This is the location of the **BRCA2** gene (specifically 13q12.3) and the **RB1** (Retinoblastoma) gene [3]. * **11q (Incorrect):** This region houses the **WT1** (Wilms tumor) gene and the **CCND1** (Cyclin D1) gene, often implicated in Mantle Cell Lymphoma. * **19q (Incorrect):** While chromosome 19 contains many genes, it is not associated with the major BRCA mutations. Co-deletion of 1p/19q is a diagnostic marker for Oligodendrogliomas. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Function:** BRCA1/2 are involved in **Homologous Recombination Repair (HRR)** [3]. Deficiency leads to "BRCAness" and sensitivity to **PARP inhibitors** (e.g., Olaparib). * **Cancer Risks:** BRCA1 carries a higher risk of **ovarian cancer** (up to 40%) and **Triple Negative Breast Cancer (TNBC)** compared to BRCA2 [1]. * **BRCA2 specific:** Associated more strongly with **male breast cancer**, pancreatic cancer, and prostate cancer [4]. * **Inheritance:** Autosomal Dominant with variable expressivity. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1058-1059. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1059-1060. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 300. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Pancreas, pp. 898-899.
Practice by Chapter
Nomenclature and Classification of Tumors
Practice Questions
Characteristics of Benign and Malignant Neoplasms
Practice Questions
Molecular Basis of Cancer
Practice Questions
Carcinogenesis and Carcinogens
Practice Questions
Tumor Progression and Metastasis
Practice Questions
Tumor Markers
Practice Questions
Paraneoplastic Syndromes
Practice Questions
Genetic Basis of Cancer
Practice Questions
Tumor Immunity
Practice Questions
Cancer Epidemiology and Prevention
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free