Dermatopathology — MCQs

Dermatopathology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 51: A 60-year-old male presents with an indurated ulcer on the lower lip and has a history of sun exposure. A biopsy reveals atypical squamous cells invading the dermis. What is the diagnosis?

A. Melanoma
B. Actinic keratosis
C. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) (Correct Answer)
D. Basal cell carcinoma

Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)*** - An **indurated ulcer** on the lower lip in a patient with a history of **sun exposure** is highly suggestive of SCC, as UV radiation is a primary risk factor [1]. - The biopsy showing **atypical squamous cells invading the dermis** confirms the diagnosis of invasive squamous cell carcinoma [2]. *Actinic keratosis* - This is a **precancerous lesion** caused by chronic sun exposure, often presenting as rough, scaly patches [3]. - While it can progress to SCC, it is not an invasive carcinoma, and the biopsy here describes dermal invasion. *Melanoma* - While also associated with sun exposure, melanoma typically originates from **melanocytes** and presents as an asymmetrical, irregular-bordered, multi-colored lesion with a changing diameter. - The biopsy demonstrating **atypical squamous cells**, not melanocytes, rules out melanoma. *Basal cell carcinoma* - This is the **most common form of skin cancer**, often presenting as a pearly nodule with rolled borders and telangiectasias, or a non-healing ulcer [2]. - While it can occur on sun-exposed areas, the biopsy finding of **atypical squamous cells** distinguishes it from basal cell carcinoma, which arises from basal cells. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 643-644. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, p. 1158. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, p. 1156.

Question 52: A 70-year-old man presents with an enlarging mass in the neck. A biopsy reveals spindle cells that are positive for S100 and HMB-45. Which malignancy is most consistent with these findings?

A. Melanoma (Correct Answer)
B. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
C. Soft Tissue Sarcoma
D. Epithelial Carcinoma

Explanation: ***Melanoma*** - The presence of **spindle cells** combined with positive staining for **S100** and **HMB-45** is highly characteristic of melanoma, which can present as a metastatic neck mass [1]. - **S100 protein** is a marker for neural crest-derived cells, and **HMB-45** is specific for melanosomes, both indicating melanocytic differentiation [1]. *Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma* - Lymphomas typically stain positive for **leukocyte common antigen (CD45)** and various B-cell or T-cell markers, not S100 or HMB-45. - The morphology is usually that of lymphoid cells, not spindle cells. *Soft Tissue Sarcoma* - While sarcomas can be composed of spindle cells, their immunohistochemical profile varies widely depending on the specific type (e.g., vimentin, desmin, actin) and would not typically include strong positivity for S100 and HMB-45. - These markers are not characteristic of the vast majority of soft tissue sarcomas. *Epithelial Carcinoma* - Carcinomas are typically composed of epithelial cells and express **cytokeratins**, not S100 or HMB-45. - Although some carcinomas can show spindle cell morphology, the specific immunophenotype rules out this diagnosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1151-1152.

Question 53: A 45-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging nodule on his forearm. Histology reveals uniform spindle cells arranged in a storiform pattern with mild atypia and low mitotic activity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans*** - This tumor is characterized by **uniform spindle cells arranged in a storiform (cartwheel) pattern** with infiltration into subcutaneous fat in a honeycomb pattern. - Shows **mild cytologic atypia and low to moderate mitotic activity**, making it a **low-grade locally aggressive sarcoma** originating in the dermis. - Typically presents as a **slowly enlarging, firm nodule or plaque** with high local recurrence rate but rare metastasis. - Characteristically shows **CD34 positivity** on immunohistochemistry. *Basal cell carcinoma* - An **epithelial tumor** showing **basaloid cells** with peripheral palisading, often with retraction artifact and stromal mucin [1]. - Presents as a **pearly nodule** with telangiectasias, not as spindle cell proliferation [1], [2]. - Slow-growing with very rare metastatic potential [1], [2]. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - An **epithelial malignancy** characterized by **keratinizing squamous cells** with intercellular bridges and keratin pearl formation [2]. - Does not show the characteristic **spindle cell storiform pattern** seen in DFSP. - May show invasion into deeper structures but has distinct epithelial morphology [2]. *Melanoma* - A **melanocytic malignancy** showing proliferation of atypical melanocytes, typically with melanin pigment (though amelanotic forms exist). - While spindle cell melanoma exists, it would show **melanocytic markers (S100, SOX10, Melan-A)** rather than CD34 positivity. - Lacks the characteristic storiform pattern and CD34 expression of DFSP. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1160-1162. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 643-644.

Question 54: A 50-year-old man presents with a non-healing ulcer on his lower leg. A biopsy reveals poorly differentiated squamous cells invading the dermis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Melanoma
D. Actinic keratosis

Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - The presence of **poorly differentiated squamous cells** invading the dermis aligns with the histological features of squamous cell carcinoma [1]. - It often presents as a **non-healing ulcer**, particularly on sun-exposed areas, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms [2,3]. *Actinic keratosis* - Typically presents as **rough, scaly patches**, not as a deep ulcer invading dermal layers. - Although it is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, it lacks the **poor differentiation** seen here [1]. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Characterized by **peripheral palisading** and is usually **not invasive** like squamous cell carcinoma [3]. - It presents more commonly as a **pearly nodule** or ulcerated lesion rather than poorly differentiated squamous cells [2]. *Melanoma* - Melanoma primarily arises from **melanocytes** and presents as a change in an existing mole or a new dark lesion, rather than **squamous cells**. - Histological features include **atypical melanocytes**, which are not present in this biopsy report. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 644-645. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 631-633. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 643-644.

Question 55: A 50-year-old woman presents with a painful, ulcerated lesion on the lower lip. A biopsy shows dysplastic squamous cells invading the basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Actinic keratosis

Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - The presence of **dysplastic squamous cells** invading the **basement membrane** indicates a malignant process, consistent with squamous cell carcinoma [1][2]. - This lesion is typically **painful and ulcerative**, further supporting the diagnosis in this clinical scenario [1]. *Actinic keratosis* - Actinic keratosis presents as a **rough, scaly patch** and does not usually involve **invasion of the basement membrane** [1]. - It is a precursor lesion but not a full-thickness carcinoma, hence would not show dysplasia at the invasive level. *Malignant melanoma* - Malignant melanoma typically arises from **melanocytes**, presenting differently than squamous lesions, often with **pigmented lesions**. - The biopsy findings of **dysplastic squamous cells** are not characteristic of melanoma, which shows atypical **melanocytes** instead. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Basal cell carcinoma usually presents as a **pearly, nodular lesion** and does not show **dysplastic squamous cells** as its primary cell type. - It tends to be **non-invasive** and does not typically invade the basement membrane in the manner described in this case. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 644-645. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 643-644.

Question 56: Increase in the thickness of the prickle cell layer of the epidermis is called?

A. Hypergranulosis (thickening of the stratum granulosum)
B. Hyperkeratosis (thickening of the stratum corneum)
C. Acanthosis (Correct Answer)
D. Spongiosis (fluid accumulation in the epidermis)

Explanation: ***Acanthosis*** - **Acanthosis** refers to the diffuse epidermal hyperplasia, specifically the increase in the thickness of the **stratum spinosum** (prickle cell layer) [1]. - This histological finding is common in various dermatological conditions, including **psoriasis** [1] and **acanthosis nigricans** [2]. *Hypergranulosis (thickening of the stratum granulosum)* - **Hypergranulosis** specifically describes the thickening of the **stratum granulosum**, the granular layer of the epidermis. - While it represents epidermal thickening, it is distinct from acanthosis which involves the prickle cell layer. *Hyperkeratosis (thickening of the stratum corneum)* - **Hyperkeratosis** is the thickening of the outermost layer of the epidermis, the **stratum corneum**, which is composed of dead keratinocytes [3]. - This condition is often seen in chronic rubbing or pressure, leading to the formation of **calluses** or **corns**. *Spongiosis (fluid accumulation in the epidermis)* - **Spongiosis** is characterized by intercellular **edema** (fluid accumulation) within the epidermis, particularly in the stratum spinosum. - This leads to widening of the spaces between keratinocytes with stretched intercellular bridges, commonly seen in **acute eczematous dermatitis**. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 640-641. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1153-1154. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, p. 1156.

Question 57: Which type of skin cancer is characterized by keratinization and pearl formation?

A. Melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) (Correct Answer)
C. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
D. Lymphoma

Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - Characterized by **keratinization** and the formation of **keratin pearls** which are indicative of its differentiation [1]. - This type of cancer arises from the **keratinocytes** in the epidermis, often associated with **sun exposure** and **chronic irritation**. *Lymphoma* - Primarily affects the **lymphatic system** and is characterized by **lymphadenopathy** and systemic symptoms rather than keratinization. - Does not involve **epithelial cells** or the formation of keratin pearls. *Basal cell carcinoma* - Typically presents with **peripheral palisading** of nuclei and does not show significant keratinization. - Rarely forms keratin pearls as it arises from **basal cells** and involves different growth patterns. *Melanoma* - Mainly arises from **melanocytes** and is associated with **pigmented lesions**, not keratinization. - Melanoma can cause **ulceration** but does not typically feature keratin pearls or significant keratinization. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 644-645.

Question 58: Which layer of the epidermis is primarily involved in spongiosis?

A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum spinosum (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Stratum spinosum*** - **Spongiosis** is characterized by **intercellular edema** (fluid accumulation between cells) within the epidermis [1], primarily affecting the **stratum spinosum** [2]. - The cells of the stratum spinosum, known as **keratinocytes**, become separated by this edema, giving the tissue a "spongy" appearance on histology due to the preservation of **desmosomal attachments**. *Stratum basale* - The **stratum basale** is the deepest layer of the epidermis, responsible for **cell proliferation** and attachment to the basement membrane. - While edema can affect all epidermal layers in severe cases, spongiosis specifically refers to the intercellular edema most prominent in the stratum spinosum [2]. *Stratum corneum* - The **stratum corneum** is the outermost layer of the epidermis, composed of dead, flattened **keratinocytes** that provide a protective barrier. - Edema in this layer is less common and would not be described as spongiosis, which implies living cells with preserved intercellular junctions. *Stratum granulosum* - The **stratum granulosum** lies above the stratum spinosum and is characterized by cells containing **keratohyalin granules**. - While it can be affected by intercellular edema, the most pronounced and characteristic spongiosis occurs in the stratum spinosum where cells are still actively synthesizing keratin and have strong desmosomal connections [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, p. 636. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, p. 1166.

Question 59: What is the term for a localized malformation composed of an excessive but disorganized arrangement of cells and tissues indigenous to the site?

A. Hamartoma (Correct Answer)
B. Malignant tumor
C. Choristoma
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Hamartoma*** - A **hamartoma** is an overgrowth of cells and tissues that are normally found in the affected area, but in a disordered fashion, creating a tumor-like growth [1]. - It's a **benign (non-cancerous)** lesion, often congenital, that grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues. *Malignant tumor* - A **malignant tumor** is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth that invades surrounding tissues and can metastasize to distant sites. - Unlike a hamartoma, a malignant tumor consists of **abnormal, dysplastic cells** that do not resemble the normal tissues of the organ. *Choristoma* - A choristoma is a **benign tumor-like growth** consisting of normal cells or tissues that are **heterotopic**, meaning they are located in an abnormal site. - An example is the presence of pancreatic tissue in the wall of the stomach, which is normal tissue in an abnormal location, unlike a hamartoma which has normal tissue in the correct location but in a disorganized manner. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **hamartoma** accurately describes the overgrowth of a skin structure at a localized region made of normal, but disorganized, tissue [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 651-652.

Question 60: Which of the following conditions does NOT exhibit dyskeratosis?

A. Bowen's disease
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Darier's disease
D. Lichen planus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lichen planus*** - This is an **inflammatory skin condition** characterized by **puritic, polygonal, planar, purple papules and plaques** [1]. - Histologically, it shows a **sawtooth pattern of rete ridges**, basal cell liquefaction degeneration, and a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate, but **no dyskeratosis**. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - This is a **malignant tumor** of keratinocytes that frequently exhibits **dyskeratosis** (premature keratinization of individual cells) [2]. - Dyskeratosis is a key feature indicating abnormal keratinocyte maturation and cellular atypia. *Bowen's disease* - Also known as **squamous cell carcinoma in situ**, Bowen's disease is a full-thickness atypia of the epidermis [2]. - It frequently demonstrates **dyskeratosis** among other features of keratinocyte atypia, such as nuclear pleomorphism and mitotic figures. *Darier's disease* - This is an **autosomal dominant genodermatosis** characterized by abnormal keratinization. - Histologically, it classically presents with **dyskeratosis** in the form of corps ronds and grains, along with suprabasal acantholysis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Skin, pp. 1168-1170. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 644-645.

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Structure and Function of Skin

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Inflammatory Dermatoses

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Blistering Diseases

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Infectious Diseases of the Skin

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Disorders of Pigmentation

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Benign Skin Tumors

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Malignant Skin Tumors

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Connective Tissue Disorders of the Skin

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Cutaneous Manifestations of Systemic Disease

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Hair and Nail Disorders

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