Trauma Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a complication of elbow dislocation?

Radial nerve injury. ***Radial nerve injury*** - The **radial nerve** is rarely injured in an elbow dislocation due to its anatomical course, which is less exposed to the shearing forces involved in this type of injury. - While other nerves like the ulnar and median nerves are more susceptible, significant stretching or compression of the radial nerve is **uncommon** in typical elbow dislocations. *Vascular injury* - The **brachial artery** runs in close proximity to the elbow joint and can be torn or compressed during a dislocation, leading to **ischemia** if not promptly recognized and treated. - This complication can result in **Volkmann's ischemic contracture** if perfusion is not restored. *Median nerve injury* - The **median nerve** passes anterior to the elbow joint and is vulnerable to injury from stretching or direct compression during dislocation. - Injury can manifest as **sensory deficits** in the distribution of the median nerve and **weakness** of forearm pronation and thumb flexion/opposition. *Myositis ossificans* - This is a common chronic complication of elbow dislocations, particularly in cases of **delayed reduction** or aggressive physical therapy. - It involves the **abnormal ossification** of soft tissues around the joint, commonly in the brachialis muscle, leading to **pain and restricted range of motion**.

Q: Pilon fracture is

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture. ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture*** - A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**. - These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage. *Bimalleolar fracture* - A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula). - While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture. *Trimalleolar fracture* - A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia). - Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia. *Proximal tibia fracture* - This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint. - It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.

Q: What is the most common type of dislocation of the elbow joint?

Posterolateral dislocation. ***Posterolateral dislocation*** - This is the **most common type of elbow dislocation**, accounting for over 90% of cases. - The **radius and ulna displace posterior and lateral** relative to the humerus. *Posterior dislocation* - While common, **pure posterior dislocations are less frequent** than posterolateral disruptions. - In a pure posterior dislocation, the **forearm bones move directly backward**, without a significant lateral component. *Posteromedial dislocation* - This is a **less common type of elbow dislocation**, involving the ulna and radius displacing posterior and medial. - Often associated with **more complex soft tissue and bony injuries**. *Lateral dislocation* - **Pure lateral dislocations of the elbow are rare** and usually involve significant disruption of the medial collateral ligament. - It occurs when the **forearm bones move directly lateral** to the humerus.

Q: Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck. ***Complete fracture with undisplaced neck*** - A **Garden Type II fracture** of the femoral neck is characterized by a **complete fracture line** through the femoral neck. - Despite the complete fracture, the **femoral head remains undisplaced** and in its anatomical position, indicating an intact or minimally disrupted posteromedial soft-tissue hinge. *Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact* - This description corresponds to a **Garden Type I fracture**, which is an **incomplete fracture** of the femoral neck, usually impacted in valgus. - In such cases, the medial trabeculae are often intact, or show buckling on the lateral side, indicating a stable fracture. *Complete fracture with ischemic head* - The presence of an **ischemic head** is a complication that can occur with any displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type III or IV), but it's not a primary defining characteristic of a specific Garden grade. - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** of the femoral head is a risk, especially with displacement, due to disruption of the blood supply. *Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged* - This description is more consistent with a **Garden Type III fracture**, where there is a **complete fracture with moderate displacement** of the femoral head, usually with some varus angulation. - Such displacement significantly increases the risk of **vascular injury** to the femoral head, predisposing to avascular necrosis.

Q: What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation

Coronoid process appears posterior to humerus. ***Coronoid process appears posterior to humerus*** - In a **posterior elbow dislocation**, the ulna and radius (including the coronoid process) are displaced **posteriorly** relative to the distal humerus. - This posterior displacement means the coronoid process, which normally articulates with the trochlea of the humerus, will be located behind the humerus on a lateral X-ray view. *Coronoid process appears anterior to humerus* - This position would typically be seen in an **anterior elbow dislocation**, which is rare. - In a normal elbow, the coronoid process is anterior to the elbow joint's axis but maintains articulation with the trochlea. *Coronoid process appears below humerus* - The term "below" is imprecise in this context and does not accurately describe the characteristic displacement in a posterior dislocation. - Displacement in dislocations is typically described in relation to the main bone involved (humerus) in an anterior-posterior or medial-lateral plane. *No visible coronoid process* - The coronoid process is an integral part of the ulna and is almost always visible on plain X-rays, even in dislocations. - Its presence is key to identifying the ulna's position relative to the humerus.

Q: Tension band wiring is indicated in fracture of which of the following ?

Olecranon. ***Olecranon*** - **Tension band wiring** is a widely used and effective technique for fixing transverse and short oblique **olecranon fractures**. - This method converts **distractive forces**, typically exerted by the triceps muscle, into **compressive forces** at the fracture site, promoting healing and stability. *Fracture of the humerus* - While various fixation methods exist for humeral fractures, **tension band wiring** is not a primary or common technique due to the complex anatomy and diverse fracture patterns of the humerus. - Humerus fractures often require **plates, screws, or intramedullary nails** for stable fixation, especially in diaphyseal or intricate joint fractures. *Fracture of the tibia* - **Tibial fractures** typically involve significant weight-bearing forces and often require strong internal fixation like **intramedullary nailing** or **plate and screw constructs**. - **Tension band wiring** is generally not suitable for the robust forces across the tibia and is rarely used alone for these fracture types. *Fracture of the spine* - **Spinal fractures** require highly specialized surgical approaches, often involving **pedicle screws, rods, or anterior instrumentation**, depending on the fracture stability and neurological involvement. - **Tension band wiring** is not an appropriate technique for stabilizing spinal fractures due to the complex biomechanics and critical neural structures involved.

Q: What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?

To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications. ***To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications*** - Early stabilization of femur shaft fractures significantly **reduces the incidence of fat embolism syndrome (FES)**. Fat emboli released from the bone marrow can travel to the lungs and brain, causing severe respiratory distress and neurological deficits. - By stabilizing the fracture, the **release of fat globules is minimized**, thereby preventing FES and associated systemic complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). *To prevent significant blood loss.* - While femur fractures can cause significant blood loss, the primary reason for early stabilization is not solely to prevent it but to reduce complications. **Blood loss is a direct consequence**, but FES poses a greater immediate threat to life. - Furthermore, **blood loss can often be managed initially by other means**, such as fluid resuscitation and direct pressure, while FES requires prompt reduction of fracture movement. *To reduce pain and discomfort.* - Reducing pain and discomfort is an important benefit of stabilization, but it is **not the primary life-saving reason** for early intervention. Analgesics and proper splinting can also address pain. - The focus on early stabilization goes beyond symptomatic relief to actively prevent **potentially fatal systemic complications**. *To facilitate quicker healing.* - While stability is crucial for proper healing, **early stabilization primarily addresses acute, life-threatening complications** rather than long-term healing rates. Optimal healing depends on many factors, including blood supply and infection control, not solely on initial stabilization. - **Quicker healing is a secondary benefit**; the immediate priority is to prevent acute morbidity and mortality associated with the fracture.

Q: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Four part. ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.

Q: Treatment of choice for displaced fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female

Multiple screw fixation. ***Multiple screw fixation*** - For a **displaced femoral neck fracture** in a younger patient (40 years old), **internal fixation** with multiple screws is generally the preferred treatment to preserve the native **femoral head**. - This approach aims to achieve **anatomical reduction** and stable fixation, allowing for bone healing and a better long-term functional outcome in active individuals. *Bipolar hemiarthroplasty* - This procedure is typically reserved for older, less active patients with **displaced femoral neck fractures**, particularly those with pre-existing conditions that might limit their longevity or activity level. - While it replaces the femoral head, it does not preserve the native joint, which is a less desirable outcome in a 40-year-old. *THR* - **Total hip replacement** is usually considered for older patients, or younger patients with **pre-existing arthritis** or failed internal fixation, due to concerns about the prosthesis's longevity and potential future revisions. - In a 40-year-old, the goal is typically to preserve the native joint if possible, unless there are other complicating factors. *None of the options* - Internal fixation with multiple screws is a well-established and appropriate treatment for a displaced femoral neck fracture in a 40-year-old patient. - Therefore, one of the provided options is indeed the correct treatment choice for this specific scenario.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a complication of elbow dislocation?

Accepted Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Vascular injury

Answer

Median nerve injury

Answer

Myositis ossificans

Question 2

Pilon fracture is

Accepted Answer

Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture

Answer

Bimalleolar fracture

Answer

Trimalleolar fracture

Answer

Proximal tibia fracture

Question 3

What is the most common type of dislocation of the elbow joint?

Accepted Answer

Posterolateral dislocation

Answer

Posterior dislocation

Answer

Posteromedial dislocation

Answer

Lateral dislocation

Question 4

Which of the following describes grade 2 fracture neck femur?

Accepted Answer

Complete fracture with undisplaced neck

Answer

Incomplete fracture, medial trabeculae intact

Answer

Complete fracture with ischemic head

Answer

Moderate displacement of neck, vascularity damaged

Question 5

What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation

Accepted Answer

Coronoid process appears posterior to humerus

Answer

Coronoid process appears anterior to humerus

Answer

Coronoid process appears below humerus

Answer

No visible coronoid process

Question 6

Tension band wiring is indicated in fracture of which of the following ?

Accepted Answer

Olecranon

Answer

Fracture of the humerus

Answer

Fracture of the tibia

Answer

Fracture of the spine

Question 7

What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?

Accepted Answer

To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications

Answer

To prevent significant blood loss.

Answer

To reduce pain and discomfort.

Answer

To facilitate quicker healing.

Question 8

Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Accepted Answer

Four part

Answer

One part

Answer

Two part

Answer

Three part

Question 9

Treatment of choice for displaced fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female

Accepted Answer

Multiple screw fixation

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Bipolar hemiarthroplasty

Answer

THR

Question 10

Volkmann's contracture: which artery is involved in this condition?

Accepted Answer

Brachial artery

Answer

Radial

Answer

Ulnar

Answer

Anterior interosseous artery

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