Trauma Practice Questions

Q: Tibial Fracture with > 1 cm wound, slight comminution and moderate crushing is

Grade II. I apologize, but I must follow the instructions to keep the correct option at the top. Based on the provided correct option in the input (Grade II), I will proceed with that as the correct answer. ***Grade II*** - A tibial fracture with a **wound > 1 cm** and **moderate crushing** without extensive periosteal stripping or significant contamination is classified as Grade II in the **Gustilo-Anderson classification** of open fractures. - This grade indicates **moderate soft tissue damage** and comminution, which is consistent with the description provided. *Grade III B* - **Grade III B** involves extensive soft tissue damage, **periosteal stripping**, and often massive contamination, requiring reconstructive procedures. - The description of a **moderate crushing injury** without mention of extensive stripping or massive contamination does not fit Grade IIIB. *Grade III A* - **Grade III A** open fractures involve adequate soft tissue coverage of the bone despite extensive laceration or flaps, or high-energy trauma with **severe comminution**. - While there is slight comminution, the defining characteristic of Grade IIIA — **adequate soft tissue coverage** — is not explicitly mentioned to differentiate it from Grade II. *Grade I* - **Grade I** open fractures have a **wound less than 1 cm** and minimal soft tissue damage, with the appearance of a puncture hole. - The given wound size of **> 1 cm** immediately rules out a Grade I classification.

Q: What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation

Coronoid process posterior to humerus. ***Coronoid process posterior to humerus*** - In a **posterior elbow dislocation**, the **ulna and radius** (including the coronoid process) are displaced *posteriorly* relative to the distal humerus. - This anatomical relationship identifies the most common form of elbow dislocation. *Coronoid process anterior to humerus* - This would imply an **anterior elbow dislocation**, which is significantly less common and would show the ulna and radius displaced *anteriorly* relative to the humerus. - This anatomical arrangement is contrary to what is seen in a posterior dislocation. *Coronoid process below humerus* - This description is vague and does not accurately capture the specific **anteroposterior displacement** characteristic of elbow dislocations. - "Below" could imply an inferior displacement, which is not the primary diagnostic feature of a posterior dislocation. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because one of the provided options accurately describes the radiological findings of a posterior elbow dislocation.

Q: Russell and Taylor classification is used for:

Subtrochanteric femoral fracture. ***Subtrochanteric femoral fracture*** - The **Russell and Taylor classification** system is specifically designed to classify **subtrochanteric femoral fractures**. - It categorizes these fractures based on the involvement of the **lesser trochanter** and the extension into the **piriformis fossa**, guiding treatment decisions. *Shaft of tibia fracture* - **Shaft of tibia fractures** are typically classified using other systems, such as the **AO/OTA classification**, which focuses on bone segment, morphology, and comminution. - The Russell and Taylor system is not applicable to lower leg fractures. *Humerus shaft fracture* - **Humerus shaft fractures** are commonly classified by systems that describe the **location (proximal, middle, distal third)**, **morphology (transverse, oblique, spiral)**, and **displacement**. - The Russell and Taylor classification does not apply to upper limb fractures. *Fracture of neck of femur* - **Fractures of the neck of the femur** are usually classified by the **Garden classification** (based on displacement) or the **Pauwels classification** (based on angle of fracture line). - These classifications determine the risk of **avascular necrosis** and guide treatment, which is distinct from the Russell and Taylor system.

Q: Avascular necrosis of head of femur occurs commonly at :

Subcapital region. ***Subcapital region*** - The **subcapital region** of the femoral head is the most common site for avascular necrosis due to its precarious blood supply, especially after trauma or with certain medical conditions. - This area is particularly vulnerable because the main blood supply from the **medial femoral circumflex artery** passes through the femoral neck to reach the head. *Transcervical region* - While fractures in the **transcervical region** can compromise blood supply to the femoral head, avascular necrosis primarily affects the subcapital region itself, rather than the neck. - This region is more prone to fracture, which can subsequently lead to disruption of vascularity to the femoral head, but not the primary site of necrosis. *Subchondral region* - The **subchondral region** is the area directly beneath the articular cartilage, and while it is eventually impacted by necrosis as the bone collapses, it is not the initial or primary site of avascular changes. - Necrosis typically begins in the bone marrow and trabeculae before affecting the subchondral plate. *Trochanteric region* - The **trochanteric region** (both greater and lesser trochanters) is well-vascularized and is rarely affected by avascular necrosis. - This area is a site for muscle attachments and has a robust blood supply, making it resilient to ischemic events.

Q: A 27-year-old right hand dominant man sustains a right distal radius fracture after a fall. He is treated with closed reduction. Which radiographic parameter has the greatest bearing on functional outcome

Palmar tilt. ***Palmar tilt*** - Restoration of **normal palmar tilt** is crucial for maintaining proper wrist biomechanics and preventing secondary osteoarthritis. - **Dorsal angulation** >20 degrees is associated with poor functional outcomes. *Radial height* - While important for overall wrist mechanics, studies show that functional outcomes are less affected by minor changes in **radial height** compared to palmar tilt. - **Loss of radial height** can lead to carpal instability and premature arthritis. *Ulnar variance* - **Positive ulnar variance** can lead to ulnocarpal impingement, while negative can cause Kienbock's disease. - However, for distal radius fractures, its impact on overall functional outcome is generally considered secondary to palmar tilt. *Radial inclination* - **Loss of radial inclination** can affect the articulation between the radius and carpal bones. - Good restoration of **radial inclination** is desirable, but it is not as strong a predictor of ultimate functional outcome as palmar tilt.

Q: Which of the following fractures is associated with high mortality and morbidity?

Pelvic fractures. ***Pelvic fractures*** - Pelvic fractures, especially **unstable** ones, are associated with significant **hemorrhage** due to the rich vascular supply of the pelvis. This can lead to **hypovolemic shock** and high mortality. - They often result from **high-energy trauma** and can cause damage to internal organs, nerves, and blood vessels, leading to high morbidity including long-term pain and disability. *Femur Shaft fractures* - While femur shaft fractures can cause significant **blood loss** (up to 1500 ml), they are generally less critical than pelvic fractures in terms of immediate mortality risks, provided adequate resuscitation. - These fractures typically result from **high-energy trauma** but are usually managed surgically with low long-term morbidity when treated appropriately. *Shaft tibia fractures* - Tibia shaft fractures, while painful and requiring long recovery, are generally not associated with high mortality due to low risk of major hemorrhage or damage to critical organs. - The main complications are **non-union**, **malunion**, and **compartment syndrome**, which contribute to morbidity but not typically mortality. *Subtrochanteric fractures* - Subtrochanteric fractures are located in the **proximal femur** and are often seen in elderly individuals or those with osteoporosis. They can cause considerable pain and disability. - While they can lead to complications such as **non-union** or implant failure, their mortality and immediate life-threatening risks are typically lower compared to severe pelvic fractures.

Q: What is luxatio erecta ?

Inferior shoulder dislocation. ***Inferior shoulder dislocation*** - Luxatio erecta is a rare type of shoulder dislocation where the humeral head is displaced **inferiorly** and the arm is fixed in an **elevated position**, often described as looking as if the patient is "waving hello." - This dislocation typically results from **hyperabduction** of the arm, forcing the humeral head out of the glenoid fossa. *Anterior shoulder dislocation* - This is the most common type of shoulder dislocation, where the humeral head is displaced **anteriorly** and **inferiorly** beneath the coracoid process. - The arm is typically held in **abduction** and **external rotation**, not a sustained elevation. *Posterior hip dislocation* - This involves the displacement of the **femoral head** out of the acetabulum in a **posterior direction**, often due to high-energy trauma dashboard injuries. - The leg typically presents in **internal rotation**, adduction, and flexion. *Anterior hip dislocation* - This less common hip dislocation involves the femoral head displacing **anteriorly** relative to the acetabulum. - The affected leg is usually held in **external rotation**, abduction, and slight flexion.

Q: Immediate treatment of compound fracture of tibia includes:

Antibiotics, debridement, and splinting. ***Antibiotics, debridement, and splinting*** - **Antibiotics** are crucial to prevent infection in **compound (open) fractures** due to communication with the external environment. - **Debridement** removes contaminated and devitalized tissue, while **splinting** stabilizes the fracture and minimizes further soft tissue damage. *Antibiotics and debridement only* - While antibiotics and debridement are essential, **splinting** is also critical for immobilizing the fracture and preventing further injury. - Without stabilization, the fracture site can move, causing additional soft tissue damage and increasing the risk of infection and delayed healing. *Debridement and splinting only* - This option overlooks the critical need for **antibiotics** in compound fractures, which are at high risk of infection due to the exposure of bone and tissue to bacteria. - Infection can lead to serious complications such as **osteomyelitis**, significantly impacting recovery and patient outcomes. *Debridement, splinting, and blood transfusion* - While debridement and splinting are correct, a **blood transfusion** is generally not an immediate routine treatment for all compound tibial fractures unless there is significant hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock. - The primary immediate concerns are infection prevention and stabilization, not typically massive blood loss requiring transfusion in every case.

Question 1

Tibial Fracture with > 1 cm wound, slight comminution and moderate crushing is

Accepted Answer

Grade II

Answer

Grade III B

Answer

Grade III A

Answer

Grade I

Question 2

What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation

Accepted Answer

Coronoid process posterior to humerus

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Coronoid process anterior to humerus

Answer

Coronoid process below humerus

Question 3

Russell and Taylor classification is used for:

Accepted Answer

Subtrochanteric femoral fracture

Answer

Shaft of tibia fracture

Answer

Humerus shaft fracture

Answer

Fracture of neck of femur

Question 4

Clinical feature of fat embolism includes all except:

Accepted Answer

Fat globules in urine are diagnostic, and it manifests after several days of trauma

Answer

Tachypnoea and systemic hypoxia are common

Answer

All of the options

Answer

Petechiae are seen in the anterior chest wall

Question 5

Avascular necrosis of head of femur occurs commonly at :

Accepted Answer

Subcapital region

Answer

Transcervical region

Answer

Subchondral region

Answer

Trochanteric region

Question 6

A 27-year-old right hand dominant man sustains a right distal radius fracture after a fall. He is treated with closed reduction. Which radiographic parameter has the greatest bearing on functional outcome

Accepted Answer

Palmar tilt

Answer

Radial height

Answer

Ulnar variance

Answer

Radial inclination

Question 7

Which of the following fractures is associated with high mortality and morbidity?

Accepted Answer

Pelvic fractures

Answer

Femur Shaft fractures

Answer

Shaft tibia fractures

Answer

Subtrochanteric fractures

Question 8

What is luxatio erecta ?

Accepted Answer

Inferior shoulder dislocation

Answer

Anterior shoulder dislocation

Answer

Posterior hip dislocation

Answer

Anterior hip dislocation

Question 9

Immediate treatment of compound fracture of tibia includes:

Accepted Answer

Antibiotics, debridement, and splinting

Answer

Antibiotics and debridement only

Answer

Debridement and splinting only

Answer

Debridement, splinting, and blood transfusion

Question 10

All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except:

Accepted Answer

Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions

Answer

In Klumpke's palsy, Horner's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side

Answer

Erb's palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder

Answer

Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglionic and postganglionic lesions

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