Trauma Practice Questions

Q: Thurston-Holland sign/fragment is seen in:

Salter Harris type II fracture. **Explanation:** The **Thurston-Holland sign** (also known as the Thurston-Holland fragment) is a pathognomonic radiological feature of **Salter-Harris Type II** physeal injuries. It refers to a triangular wedge of the metaphysis that remains attached to the displaced epiphysis. This occurs because the fracture line travels along the hypertrophic zone of the physis and then propagates upward, exiting through the metaphysis. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option C (Correct):** In Salter-Harris Type II fractures (the most common type), the fracture passes through the physis and exits through the metaphysis. This detached metaphyseal fragment is the Thurston-Holland sign. * **Option A:** An oblique fracture of the lower 1/3rd of the humerus is associated with the **Holstein-Lewis fracture**, which carries a high risk of radial nerve palsy. * **Option B:** Reverse oblique intertrochanteric fractures are characterized by a fracture line extending from the medial cortex distally to the lateral cortex proximally; they are considered unstable but do not involve the Thurston-Holland sign. * **Option D:** A coronal fracture of the femoral condyle is known as a **Hoffa fracture**, which is an intra-articular injury. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Salter-Harris Classification Mnemonic (SALTR):** * **I:** **S**traight across (Physis only) * **II:** **A**bove (Physis + Metaphysis) — *Most common; features Thurston-Holland sign.* * **III:** **L**ower (Physis + Epiphysis) * **IV:** **T**hrough (Metaphysis + Physis + Epiphysis) * **V:** **R**ammed (Crush injury to physis) — *Worst prognosis.* * The Thurston-Holland fragment signifies that the periosteum on that side is intact, which can sometimes assist in stable closed reduction.

Q: Cozens test is used for the diagnosis of which condition?

Tennis elbow. **Explanation:** **Cozen’s test** is a classic clinical provocative maneuver used to diagnose **Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)**. The underlying medical concept involves the inflammation or microtearing of the common extensor origin, specifically the **Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)** muscle. To perform the test, the patient’s elbow is stabilized, the forearm is pronated, and the wrist is extended against resistance while the clinician palpates the lateral epicondyle. A positive test is indicated by sudden, sharp pain at the lateral epicondyle, resulting from the tension placed on the diseased tendon. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Golfer’s Elbow (Medial Epicondylitis):** This involves the common flexor origin. It is diagnosed using the **Mill’s test** (medial variant) or by resisting wrist flexion. * **Student’s Elbow (Olecranon Bursitis):** This is an inflammation of the bursa over the olecranon process, usually due to repetitive friction. It presents with swelling rather than pain on resisted wrist movement. * **Frozen Elbow:** This is a non-specific term; however, stiffness in the elbow is usually post-traumatic or due to osteoarthritis, not diagnosed by provocative tendon tests. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common muscle involved in Tennis Elbow:** Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB). * **Other tests for Tennis Elbow:** Mill’s Test (passive stretching) and Maudsley’s Test (resisted extension of the middle finger). * **Treatment:** Conservative management (Rest, NSAIDs, Bracing) is the first line; eccentric strengthening exercises are highly effective.

Q: What is the mode of injury of a Colles fracture?

Abduction and external rotation. **Explanation:** A **Colles fracture** is a classic extra-articular fracture of the distal radius occurring approximately 2.5 cm proximal to the wrist joint. **1. Why Option C is Correct:** The mechanism of injury is a **fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)** with the wrist in dorsiflexion. During such a fall, the force is transmitted through the carpus to the distal radius. The specific biomechanical forces involved are **abduction and external rotation** of the distal fragment relative to the proximal shaft. This results in the characteristic "dinner fork deformity," where the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly (dorsally) and tilted superiorly. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options A, B, and D:** These combinations of forces do not align with the anatomy of a FOOSH injury. Internal rotation or adduction forces would typically lead to different fracture patterns, such as a Smith’s fracture (reverse Colles), where the fall occurs on a flexed wrist, leading to volar (anterior) displacement. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Deformity:** Classically described as the **"Dinner Fork Deformity"** due to dorsal displacement, dorsal tilt, and radial deviation. * **Demographics:** Most common in post-menopausal women (osteoporotic bone). * **Associated Injury:** Often associated with a fracture of the **ulnar styloid process**. * **Complications:** The most common late complication is **malunion**; the most common tendon rupture is the **Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL)**; and the most common nerve involved is the **Median nerve** (Carpal Tunnel Syndrome). * **Treatment:** Undisplaced fractures are treated with a Colles cast (below-elbow cast with slight wrist flexion and ulnar deviation).

Q: Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint occurs due to which of the following?

Damaged glenoid labrum. The shoulder is the most commonly dislocated joint in the body due to the inherent instability of the shallow glenoid cavity. Recurrent dislocation is a frequent complication, primarily driven by structural damage sustained during the initial traumatic event. ### **Why the Correct Answer is Right** The **glenoid labrum** is a fibrocartilaginous rim that deepens the glenoid fossa, increasing the contact area for the humeral head and providing stability. The most common cause of recurrent shoulder dislocation is a **Bankart lesion**, which is an avulsion of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum. When this "bumper" is damaged, the humeral head can easily slip out of the socket during abduction and external rotation. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **A. Weakened and ruptured muscle:** While muscle weakness (especially the subscapularis) can contribute to instability, it is rarely the primary cause of *recurrent* dislocation compared to structural labral tears. * **C. Reduced blood supply:** Avascularity may lead to osteonecrosis (e.g., of the humeral head), but it does not directly cause joint instability or recurrent dislocations. * **D. Injury to the rotator cuff:** Rotator cuff tears are more common in older patients following a dislocation. While they affect dynamic stability, the primary mechanical failure in recurrent cases is usually the labrum/capsule complex. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Bankart Lesion:** Detachment of the anteroinferior labrum (Most common cause). * **Hill-Sachs Lesion:** A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head (often seen on X-ray/MRI in recurrent cases). * **ALPSA Lesion:** Anterior Labral Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (a variant of Bankart). * **Gold Standard Investigation:** MRI Arthrography. * **Surgery of Choice:** Bankart repair (Arthroscopic or Open). If there is significant glenoid bone loss, a **Latarjet procedure** (coracoid transfer) is performed.

Q: Which of the following is an uncommon complication of Colles' fracture?

Non-union. **Explanation:** **Colles' fracture** is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement, occurring through the cancellous bone. 1. **Why Non-union is the correct answer:** Non-union is **extremely rare** in Colles' fracture. This is because the fracture occurs through **cancellous bone**, which has a rich blood supply and a large surface area, facilitating rapid and reliable healing. Even if the fracture is poorly reduced, it almost always unites (though it may result in mal-union). 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Mal-union:** This is the **most common complication**. It results in the classic "Dinner Fork Deformity" due to residual dorsal tilt and radial shortening. * **Rupture of Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL):** This is a well-known late complication. It occurs due to attrition (friction) of the tendon against the irregular bony surface at Lister’s tubercle or due to ischemia of the tendon. * **Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (Sudeck’s Atrophy):** This is a common complication characterized by pain, swelling, and vasomotor instability of the hand, often triggered by a tight cast or excessive pain. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common complication:** Mal-union. * **Most common joint involvement:** Secondary Osteoarthritis of the distal radio-ulnar joint. * **EPL Rupture:** Usually occurs 4–8 weeks post-injury; treated with **Extensor Indicis Proprius (EIP) transfer**. * **Median Nerve Palsy:** Can occur acutely due to carpal tunnel compression. * **Sudeck’s Atrophy:** Clinically presents with "shoulder-hand syndrome" and radiographic evidence of patchy osteoporosis.

Q: A 22-year-old athlete sustained a twisting injury to his right ankle, resulting in significant swelling around the medial malleolus. An X-ray revealed no fracture. Which structure is most likely injured?

Deltoid ligament. ### Explanation **Correct Option: D. Deltoid Ligament** The **Deltoid ligament** is a strong, fan-shaped ligament located on the **medial side** of the ankle joint. It consists of superficial and deep fibers that resist eversion (outward turning) of the foot. In this clinical scenario, the patient presents with swelling specifically around the **medial malleolus** following a twisting injury. Since the X-ray ruled out a fracture (such as a medial malleolus avulsion), the most likely diagnosis is a medial ankle sprain involving the Deltoid ligament. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Tendo Achilles:** This is the thickest tendon in the body, located **posteriorly**. Injury typically presents with pain at the heel, a palpable gap, and a positive Thompson (Simmonds) test, rather than medial swelling. * **B. Spring Ligament (Plantar Calcaneonavicular):** While located medially, it supports the medial longitudinal arch. Chronic injury leads to flatfoot deformity (pes planus). It is less commonly the primary site of acute swelling compared to the deltoid ligament in eversion injuries. * **C. Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL):** This is the **most commonly injured ligament** in the ankle, but it is located on the **lateral side**. It is injured during inversion (supination) injuries, causing swelling near the lateral malleolus. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism of Injury:** Inversion injuries (most common) affect lateral ligaments (ATFL > CFL); Eversion injuries affect the Deltoid ligament. * **Ottawa Ankle Rules:** Used to determine if an X-ray is required (tenderness at the posterior edge of malleoli or inability to bear weight). * **Pott’s Fracture:** Often involves a Deltoid ligament tear associated with a fibular fracture. * **Stability:** The Deltoid ligament is so strong that eversion forces often result in a medial malleolus avulsion fracture rather than a pure ligamentous tear.

Q: What is the most common site of a stress fracture?

2nd metatarsal. **Explanation:** Stress fractures (also known as fatigue fractures) occur due to repetitive submaximal loading on a bone that exceeds its remodeling capacity. **Why the 2nd Metatarsal is correct:** The **2nd metatarsal shaft** is the most common site for a stress fracture in the general population and athletes. This is primarily because the second metatarsal is the longest, thinnest, and most rigid of the metatarsals. During the "toe-off" phase of the gait cycle, it acts as a fixed fulcrum, subjecting it to significant mechanical stress. When this occurs in military recruits or long-distance hikers, it is classically referred to as a **"March Fracture."** **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. 2nd Metacarpal:** Stress fractures of the upper limb are rare because it is not a weight-bearing extremity. They are occasionally seen in specific athletes (e.g., tennis players) but are far less common than lower limb sites. * **C. Fibula:** While the distal third of the fibula is a common site for stress fractures (especially in runners), it ranks behind the metatarsals and the tibia in overall frequency. * **D. Ribs:** Rib stress fractures are rare and typically associated with specific repetitive actions like heavy rowing or chronic coughing. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common bone overall:** While the 2nd metatarsal is the most common *specific site*, some literature cites the **Tibia** as the most common *bone* involved in athletes. * **Investigation of choice:** **MRI** is the most sensitive and gold-standard investigation (shows marrow edema). * **X-ray findings:** Often negative in the first 2–3 weeks; later shows a periosteal reaction or a faint transverse lucent line. * **Female Athlete Triad:** Always consider this in young females with stress fractures (Amenorrhea, Disordered eating, Osteoporosis).

Q: Which of the following conditions requires the most immediate priority in the management of a fracture?

All of the above. In orthopaedic trauma, the management priority is determined by the risk to **life** and **limb**. While many fractures can be managed electively, certain conditions constitute **orthopaedic emergencies** that require immediate intervention to prevent permanent disability, amputation, or systemic sepsis. **Explanation of the Correct Answer:** The correct answer is **All of the above** because each option represents a critical threat that demands urgent surgical or manipulative intervention: * **Vascular Injury (Option C):** This is the highest priority. Ischemia from a compromised artery (e.g., popliteal artery in knee dislocation) can lead to irreversible muscle necrosis within 6 hours. "Life over limb, but limb over disability" is the rule. * **Open Fracture (Option A):** These are surgical emergencies due to the high risk of contamination and subsequent osteomyelitis or gas gangrene. They require immediate irrigation, debridement, and antibiotic administration (the "Golden Period" is usually within 6 hours). * **Dislocated Fracture (Option B):** A dislocation (especially when associated with a fracture) can cause immediate pressure on overlying skin (leading to necrosis) or adjacent neurovascular structures. Prompt reduction is mandatory to restore perfusion and relieve tension. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS):** Used to decide between limb salvage and amputation; a score of $\ge$ 7 usually indicates amputation. 2. **Gustilo-Anderson Classification:** The standard for grading open fractures (Type IIIA, B, and C are high-energy). 3. **Rule of 6s:** Irreversible nerve damage starts at 6 hours of ischemia; open fractures should ideally be debrided within 6 hours. 4. **Priority in Trauma (ATLS):** Always follow **ABCDE**. Once the patient is hemodynamically stable, vascular injuries and compartment syndrome become the top orthopaedic priorities.

Q: Fracture of both bones of the forearm at the same level requires the limb to be immobilized in plaster in which position?

Mid-pronation. **Explanation:** The position of immobilization for forearm fractures is determined by the **level of the fracture** relative to the insertions of the forearm rotators (the Biceps brachii, Supinator, and Pronator teres). 1. **Why Mid-pronation is correct:** When both bones are fractured at the **same level** (usually the middle third), the proximal fragment is acted upon by the Pronator teres, which pulls it into a neutral position. To maintain alignment and prevent rotational deformity, the distal fragment must be aligned with the proximal fragment. Therefore, the limb is immobilized in **mid-pronation (neutral position)**. This position also maintains the maximum interosseous space, preventing synostosis. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Full Supination (A):** This is indicated for fractures in the **proximal third** (above the insertion of Pronator teres). In such cases, the proximal fragment is unopposedly supinated by the Biceps and Supinator. * **10 degrees Supination (B):** While some texts suggest slight supination for mid-shaft fractures, "Mid-pronation" is the standard textbook answer for fractures at the same level. * **Full Pronation (C):** This is generally avoided as it narrows the interosseous space and is only occasionally considered for distal third fractures, though neutral is still preferred. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Proximal 1/3rd fracture:** Immobilize in **Supination**. * **Middle 1/3rd fracture:** Immobilize in **Neutral/Mid-pronation**. * **Distal 1/3rd fracture:** Immobilize in **Pronation** (though neutral is often used). * **Management Gold Standard:** In adults, "both bone" forearm fractures are considered "articular fractures of necessity" and usually require **ORIF with Dynamic Compression Plates (DCP)**. Cast immobilization is primarily for pediatric cases.

Question 1

Thurston-Holland sign/fragment is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Salter Harris type II fracture

Answer

Oblique fracture of lower 1/3rd humerus

Answer

Reverse oblique fracture of intertrochanteric femur

Answer

Coronal fracture of femoral condyles

Question 2

Cozens test is used for the diagnosis of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Tennis elbow

Answer

Golfer's elbow

Answer

Student's elbow

Answer

Frozen elbow

Question 3

What is the mode of injury of a Colles fracture?

Accepted Answer

Abduction and external rotation

Answer

Adduction and external rotation

Answer

Abduction and internal rotation

Answer

Adduction and internal rotation

Question 4

Recurrent dislocation of the shoulder joint occurs due to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Damaged glenoid labrum

Answer

Weakened and ruptured muscle

Answer

Reduced blood supply

Answer

Injury to the rotator cuff

Question 5

Which of the following are true about Posttraumatic fat embolism syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Bradycardia occurs.

Answer

Fracture mobility is a risk factor.

Answer

Associated diabetes poses a risk.

Answer

Thrombocytopenia occurs.

Question 6

Which of the following is an uncommon complication of Colles' fracture?

Accepted Answer

Non-union

Answer

Mal-union

Answer

Rupture of the Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon

Answer

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

Question 7

A 22-year-old athlete sustained a twisting injury to his right ankle, resulting in significant swelling around the medial malleolus. An X-ray revealed no fracture. Which structure is most likely injured?

Accepted Answer

Deltoid ligament

Answer

Tendo Achilles

Answer

Spring ligament

Answer

Anterior talofibular ligament

Question 8

What is the most common site of a stress fracture?

Accepted Answer

2nd metatarsal

Answer

2nd metacarpal

Answer

Fibula

Answer

Ribs

Question 9

Which of the following conditions requires the most immediate priority in the management of a fracture?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Open fracture

Answer

Dislocated fracture

Answer

Vascular injury

Question 10

Fracture of both bones of the forearm at the same level requires the limb to be immobilized in plaster in which position?

Accepted Answer

Mid-pronation

Answer

Full supination

Answer

10 degrees supination

Answer

Full pronation

Trauma — MCQs

Trauma — MCQs

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