Trauma — MCQs
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Sectoral sign is positive in which of the following conditions?
Which of the following is NOT a classification of fracture neck of femur?
Bucket handle type of fractures are typically seen in which population group?
Which of the following are the characteristic features of a fracture of the neck of the femur?
What is the most common site for ligamentous injuries?
A 36-year-old man sustained a soccer injury. What procedure needs to be performed urgently?
Stress fractures are diagnosed by which imaging modality?
A fracture of the anterolateral lower end of the tibia is known as which type of fracture?
A 32-year-old male with a history of recurrent posterior dislocation of the shoulder joint. Which aspect of the humeral head is likely to show the lesion?
A patient presents in the emergency with a cervical spine fracture. What is the first priority in management?
Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Sectoral sign is positive in which of the following conditions?
- A. Avascular necrosis of femur head (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteoarthritis of hip
- C. Protrusio acetabuli
- D. Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Sectoral Sign** is a classic radiological feature of **Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head**. It refers to the phenomenon where the necrotic segment of the femoral head appears relatively more radiopaque (denser) compared to the surrounding osteopenic bone. This occurs because the dead bone maintains its original density while the surrounding viable bone undergoes disuse atrophy and resorption, creating a "sector" of increased density, usually in the anterolateral weight-bearing portion. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Avascular Necrosis (AVN):** Correct. The sectoral sign, along with the **"Crescent Sign"** (subchondral fracture), is a hallmark of Ficat and Arlet Stage II/III AVN. * **B. Osteoarthritis of Hip:** Characterized by joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophytes. While sclerosis is present, it is usually diffuse along the joint line rather than a specific "sectoral" density. * **C. Protrusio Acetabuli:** This refers to the medial displacement of the femoral head beyond the ilioischial (Kohler’s) line. It is seen in rheumatoid arthritis and Paget’s disease, not characterized by sectoral density. * **D. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE):** This involves the displacement of the epiphysis postero-inferiorly. Key signs include **Trethowan’s sign** (Klein’s line not intersecting the epiphysis) and the **Steel sign** (metaphyseal blanching). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most sensitive imaging for AVN:** MRI (shows the "Double Line Sign" on T2 images). * **Earliest X-ray sign of AVN:** Sclerosis/Sectoral sign (Stage II). * **Crescent Sign:** Indicates an impending articular collapse (Stage III). * **Commonest site for AVN:** Femoral head (due to retrograde blood supply via the medial circumflex femoral artery).
Question 172: Which of the following is NOT a classification of fracture neck of femur?
- A. Garden's classification
- B. Olebet classification
- C. Pauwel's classification
- D. Thompson's classification (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Thompson’s classification**, as it is not a classification system for femoral neck fractures. Instead, **Thompson** refers to a type of **hemiarthroplasty prosthesis** (a unipolar, cemented prosthesis with a long intramedullary stem) used in the surgical management of these fractures. **Analysis of Options:** * **Garden’s Classification:** This is the most widely used system for intracapsular hip fractures. it is based on the **degree of displacement** seen on an AP X-ray. It categorizes fractures into four stages (Stage I: Incomplete/Impacted; Stage II: Complete/Undisplaced; Stage III: Partially displaced; Stage IV: Completely displaced). * **Pauwel’s Classification:** This is based on the **angle of the fracture line** relative to the horizontal plane. It assesses the biomechanical stability (shear vs. compressive forces). Type I is <30°, Type II is 30-50°, and Type III is >70° (most unstable). * **Olebett’s Classification:** This is an anatomical classification based on the **location** of the fracture line along the neck. It divides fractures into Subcapital (just below the head), Transcervical (mid-neck), and Basal (at the base of the neck). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Blood Supply:** The main blood supply to the femoral head is the **Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery** (via retinacular vessels). Disruption leads to Avascular Necrosis (AVN). * **Garden’s Stage III & IV** carry the highest risk of non-union and AVN. * **Management:** In elderly patients with displaced fractures, **Arthroplasty** (Hemi or Total) is preferred over internal fixation to avoid the high re-operation rates associated with AVN.
Question 173: Bucket handle type of fractures are typically seen in which population group?
- A. Children
- B. Soldiers
- C. Edentulous persons (Correct Answer)
- D. Young adults
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Edentulous persons**. **Why Edentulous Persons?** In the context of maxillofacial trauma, a "bucket handle" fracture refers to **bilateral fractures of the body of the mandible** in an edentulous (toothless) patient. In these individuals, the mandible undergoes significant alveolar bone resorption, making it thin and atrophic. When a bilateral fracture occurs, the anterior segment of the mandible is displaced downwards and backwards by the action of the geniohyoid and genioglossus muscles. This displacement resembles the movement of a bucket handle. This is a critical clinical scenario because the posterior displacement of the tongue (attached to the genial tubercles) can lead to acute airway obstruction. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Children:** Pediatric mandibular fractures are more likely to be "Greenstick" fractures due to the high organic content and elasticity of the bone. * **Soldiers:** This group is typically associated with "March fractures" (stress fractures of the metatarsals) due to repetitive loading, or high-velocity ballistic trauma. * **Young Adults:** This demographic most commonly sustains mandibular fractures due to road traffic accidents or assaults, but they usually have dentition that provides structural stability, preventing the specific "bucket handle" displacement pattern. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Airway Emergency:** The primary concern in a bucket handle fracture is the loss of tongue support, leading to upper airway obstruction. * **Atrophic Mandible:** The risk of this fracture increases as the vertical height of the mandible decreases below 10-15mm. * **Management:** Unlike dentate patients, these are often managed with Gunning splints or internal fixation, as there are no teeth for intermaxillary fixation (IMF).
Question 174: Which of the following are the characteristic features of a fracture of the neck of the femur?
- A. Flexion at the hip and lateral rotation
- B. Flexion at the hip and abduction
- C. Shortening and lateral rotation (Correct Answer)
- D. Shortening and flexion
Explanation: **Explanation:** The classic clinical presentation of a **fracture of the neck of the femur** (intracapsular fracture) is a limb that is **shortened and externally (laterally) rotated**. 1. **Shortening:** This occurs due to the proximal migration of the distal femoral fragment caused by the upward pull of the powerful hip muscles (rectus femoris, hamstrings, and adductors) which are no longer resisted by the intact femoral neck. 2. **Lateral Rotation:** The distal fragment rotates externally because the short external rotators of the hip are unopposed. Furthermore, the weight of the foot naturally tends to roll the limb outward once the structural integrity of the femoral neck is lost. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Options A, B, and D:** While flexion may occasionally be seen due to pain response, it is not a defining diagnostic feature of the fracture. **Abduction** is incorrect because the limb typically lies in a neutral or slightly adducted position. The combination of shortening and lateral rotation is the "pathognomonic" clinical sign tested in exams. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Degree of Rotation:** In **Intracapsular** (Neck) fractures, lateral rotation is typically **45°** because the capsule limits further movement. In **Extracapsular** (Intertrochanteric) fractures, the rotation is more severe, often reaching **90°** (the foot touches the bed). * **Vascularity:** The main blood supply to the femoral head is the **Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery**. Fractures here carry a high risk of **Avascular Necrosis (AVN)** and non-union. * **Classification:** Garden’s Classification is used for femoral neck fractures, while Boyd and Griffin or Jensen’s is used for intertrochanteric fractures.
Question 175: What is the most common site for ligamentous injuries?
- A. Shoulder joint
- B. Elbow
- C. Knee joint
- D. Ankle joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: The **Ankle joint** is the most common site for ligamentous injuries in the human body. This is primarily due to the joint's anatomy and the biomechanical stresses it endures during weight-bearing activities. ### Why the Ankle Joint is Correct The ankle is a hinge joint that frequently experiences high-velocity inversion or eversion forces on uneven terrain. The **Lateral Ligament Complex** is the most frequently injured, specifically the **Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL)**, which is the weakest and first to tear during an inversion injury (the most common mechanism). ### Analysis of Incorrect Options * **Shoulder Joint:** While the shoulder is the most common site for **dislocations** (due to the shallow glenoid cavity), ligamentous sprains are less frequent than ankle sprains. * **Knee Joint:** The knee is a major site for ligamentous injuries (ACL, MCL, PCL), especially in athletes. However, statistically, the incidence of ankle sprains in the general population and across all sports significantly exceeds that of knee injuries. * **Elbow:** Ligamentous injuries here (like the Ulnar Collateral Ligament) are usually specific to overhead throwing athletes or associated with fractures/dislocations, making them less common than ankle injuries. ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls * **Most common ligament injured in the body:** Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL). * **Mechanism of injury:** Inversion + Plantarflexion. * **Order of lateral ligament injury:** ATFL > Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) > Posterior Talofibular ligament (PTFL). * **Ottawa Ankle Rules:** Used clinically to determine the need for X-rays to rule out fractures following an ankle sprain. * **Treatment:** The standard initial management is the **RICE** protocol (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation).
Question 176: A 36-year-old man sustained a soccer injury. What procedure needs to be performed urgently?
- A. A CT scan
- B. Application of a cast to maintain alignment
- C. Internal fixation
- D. Manipulation to improve alignment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Manipulation to improve alignment*** - **Anterior shoulder dislocation** requires urgent **closed reduction** to restore glenohumeral joint alignment and prevent complications. - Delayed reduction increases risk of **muscle spasm**, **axillary nerve injury**, and **anterior circumflex humeral artery** compromise. *A CT scan* - While useful for detecting **associated fractures**, CT is not the urgent priority in obvious dislocation cases. - **Clinical examination** and **plain radiographs** are sufficient for diagnosis; reduction should not be delayed for advanced imaging. *Application of a cast to maintain alignment* - Casting without **prior reduction** would immobilize the shoulder in a **dislocated position**, causing permanent damage. - **Sling immobilization** is appropriate only **after successful reduction** to allow soft tissue healing. *Internal fixation* - **Surgical fixation** is reserved for **recurrent dislocations**, **associated fractures**, or **failed closed reduction**. - Initial management of **acute anterior dislocation** is always **closed reduction** unless contraindicated by fractures.
Question 177: Stress fractures are diagnosed by which imaging modality?
- A. X-ray
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. Bone scan
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Stress fractures** occur due to repetitive submaximal loading on a bone, leading to an imbalance between bone resorption and formation. **Why MRI is the Correct Answer:** MRI is currently the **gold standard** and the most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing stress fractures. Its primary advantage is the ability to detect **bone marrow edema**, which is the earliest physiological sign of a stress injury. MRI can identify these changes within 24–48 hours of symptom onset, long before structural changes appear on other modalities. It offers 100% sensitivity and high specificity without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. X-ray:** Usually the first-line investigation but has very low sensitivity (15–35%) in early stages. Findings like the "dreaded black line" or periosteal reaction often take 2–6 weeks to appear. * **B. CT scan:** Excellent for visualizing cortical breaks and complex anatomy (like the tarsal navicular), but it lacks the sensitivity to detect early marrow edema. * **C. Bone Scan (Technetium-99m):** Historically the investigation of choice due to high sensitivity. However, it is now considered inferior to MRI because it lacks specificity (it shows "hot spots" for infection or tumors) and involves radiation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Tibia (followed by metatarsals—specifically the 2nd metatarsal, known as a **March Fracture**). * **Female Athlete Triad:** Disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis/stress fractures. * **Mnemonic:** MRI is for **M**arrow edema (Early); X-ray is for **C**allus (Late). * **Gold Standard for Pars Interarticularis (Spondylolysis):** SPECT scan or CT, though MRI is preferred for early "pre-fracture" edema.
Question 178: A fracture of the anterolateral lower end of the tibia is known as which type of fracture?
- A. Tillaux fracture (Correct Answer)
- B. Bosworth fracture
- C. Gosselin fracture
- D. Segond fracture
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: A. Tillaux fracture** **Mechanism and Anatomy:** A **Tillaux fracture** is an avulsion fracture of the **anterolateral** tubercle of the distal tibia. It occurs due to the pull of the **Anterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (AITFL)** during a forced external rotation of the foot. In adolescents (specifically ages 12–14), this occurs because the medial part of the distal tibial epiphysis closes first, leaving the lateral part vulnerable to avulsion before it completely ossifies. In adults, this is often referred to as a **Chaput fracture**. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Bosworth fracture:** This is a rare fracture-dislocation of the ankle where the proximal fibular fragment becomes trapped behind the posterior tubercle of the tibia, making closed reduction difficult. * **C. Gosselin fracture:** A V-shaped fracture of the distal tibia that extends into the tibial plafond, dividing it into anterior and posterior fragments. * **D. Segond fracture:** An avulsion fracture of the **lateral tibial condyle** (at the knee), associated with the insertion of the anterolateral ligament and highly indicative of an **Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear**. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Juvenile Tillaux Fracture:** Classic "Salter-Harris Type III" injury occurring in the transitional age group. * **Wagstaffe-Le Fort Fracture:** The counterpart to Tillaux; it is an avulsion of the AITFL from its attachment on the **anterior fibula**. * **Imaging:** While X-rays (AP and Mortise views) are initial, a **CT scan** is the gold standard to assess the degree of displacement (surgical threshold is usually >2mm).
Question 179: A 32-year-old male with a history of recurrent posterior dislocation of the shoulder joint. Which aspect of the humeral head is likely to show the lesion?
- A. Anteromedial (Correct Answer)
- B. Anterolateral
- C. Posteromedial
- D. Posterolateral
Explanation: ### Explanation The correct answer is **A. Anteromedial**. #### 1. The Underlying Concept: Reverse Hill-Sachs Lesion In a **posterior dislocation** of the shoulder, the humeral head is forced posteriorly against the posterior rim of the glenoid labrum. As the humeral head impacts the sharp glenoid rim, an impaction fracture occurs on the **anteromedial** aspect of the humeral head. This specific injury is known as a **Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion**. #### 2. Analysis of Options * **Anteromedial (Correct):** This is the site of impaction during posterior dislocation. The anterior part of the humeral head hits the posterior part of the glenoid. * **Posterolateral (Incorrect):** This is the site of a classic **Hill-Sachs lesion**, which occurs during **anterior shoulder dislocation** (the most common type). Here, the posterolateral humeral head impacts the anterior glenoid rim. * **Anterolateral & Posteromedial (Incorrect):** These anatomical locations do not correspond to the standard impaction points during common shoulder dislocations. #### 3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG * **Posterior Dislocation:** Often associated with **seizures** or **electric shocks** (due to the strength of internal rotators). * **Clinical Sign:** The patient presents with the arm fixed in **adduction and internal rotation**. External rotation is impossible. * **Radiology:** Look for the **"Light Bulb Sign"** on AP view (the humeral head appears rounded due to internal rotation) and the **"Rim Sign"** (increased space between the glenoid and humeral head). * **Reverse Bankart Lesion:** This refers to the detachment of the **posterior-inferior** labrum, often seen alongside a Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion in recurrent posterior instability.
Question 180: A patient presents in the emergency with a cervical spine fracture. What is the first priority in management?
- A. Locate the fracture by shifting the patient side to side
- B. Obtain an X-ray of the spine
- C. Clear the airway and intubate the patient
- D. Immobilize the cervical spine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** In any suspected cervical spine injury, the primary goal is to **prevent secondary spinal cord injury**. Any movement of an unstable fracture can lead to permanent neurological deficit or respiratory arrest due to phrenic nerve involvement (C3-C5). **Why Option D is Correct:** Immobilization is the "zero-priority" step in trauma management. Before performing any maneuvers or transporting the patient, the cervical spine must be stabilized using a rigid cervical collar, sandbags, or manual in-line stabilization (MILS). This ensures that the spinal cord is protected during subsequent life-saving interventions. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Shifting the patient side-to-side is strictly contraindicated. This "log-rolling" should only be done by a trained team once the spine is stabilized to check for back injuries. * **Option B:** While imaging is essential for diagnosis, "Radiology never precedes Resuscitation/Stabilization." You must stabilize the patient before moving them to the X-ray suite. * **Option C:** While "Airway" is the 'A' in the ABCDE protocol, in trauma, it is always **"Airway with Cervical Spine Protection."** Blind intubation without stabilization can cause hyperextension of the neck, potentially transecting the cord. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard for Clearance:** A clinically conscious, sober, and asymptomatic patient (NEXUS criteria). * **Best Initial Imaging:** Lateral X-ray (must visualize up to the C7-T1 junction). * **Investigation of Choice (IOC):** MRI for soft tissue/cord injury; CT for bony anatomy. * **Management Tip:** If intubation is required, use **Manual In-Line Stabilization (MILS)** rather than a cervical collar to allow better visualization of the vocal cords while preventing neck extension.
Practice by Chapter
Principles of Fracture Management
Practice Questions
Upper Limb Fractures
Practice Questions
Lower Limb Fractures
Practice Questions
Spinal Trauma
Practice Questions
Pelvic and Acetabular Fractures
Practice Questions
Open Fractures
Practice Questions
Fractures in Children
Practice Questions
Fracture Complications
Practice Questions
Nonunion and Malunion
Practice Questions
Polytrauma Management
Practice Questions
Joint Dislocations
Practice Questions
Soft Tissue Injuries
Practice Questions
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