Trauma — MCQs

Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1071: Most commonly recommended cast position for proximal forearm fractures is ?

A. Pronated flexion
B. Neutral position
C. Supinated position (Correct Answer)
D. Position does not matter

Explanation: ***Supinated position*** - The **supinated position** is generally recommended for proximal forearm fractures because the **biceps brachii** and **supinator muscles**, which are often attached to the proximal fracture segment, cause **supination** when they contract. - Placing the forearm in supination **aligns the distal fracture fragment** with the proximal fragment, promoting better reduction and healing. *Pronated flexion* - **Pronation** would cause the distal fragment to rotate away from the proximal fragment, leading to **malunion** or nonunion. - While some fractures might benefit from a degree of flexion, **pronated flexion** specifically is not the primary position for proximal forearm alignment. *Neutral position* - A **neutral position** might not adequately account for the rotational forces exerted by the biceps and supinator on the proximal fragment, potentially leading to **rotational displacement**. - It does not offer the same alignment benefits as full supination for most proximal forearm fractures. *Position does not matter* - The **cast position is crucial** for forearm fractures, especially proximal ones, as the muscles attached to the forearm bones exert significant rotational forces. - An **incorrect cast position** can lead to rotational deformities, **malunion**, and functional impairment of the forearm.

Question 1072: Pilon fracture is

A. Bimalleolar fracture
B. Trimalleolar fracture
C. Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture (Correct Answer)
D. Proximal tibia fracture

Explanation: ***Distal tibia Intraarticular fracture*** - A **pilon fracture** specifically refers to an **intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia**, involving the weight-bearing surface of the **ankle joint**. - These fractures typically result from high-energy axial loading mechanisms, driving the talus into the plafond and causing extensive articular damage. *Bimalleolar fracture* - A **bimalleolar fracture** involves fractures of both the **medial malleolus** (distal tibia) and the **lateral malleolus** (distal fibula). - While it involves the ankle, it does not necessarily involve the **tibial plafond** articular surface in the same destructive manner as a pilon fracture. *Trimalleolar fracture* - A **trimalleolar fracture** includes fractures of the medial, lateral, and **posterior malleolus** (a portion of the distal tibia). - Like bimalleolar fractures, it primarily describes the involvement of the malleoli rather than the intra-articular surface load-bearing portion of the distal tibia. *Proximal tibia fracture* - This term refers to a fracture occurring in the **upper part of the tibia**, near the knee joint. - It does not involve the **distal end of the tibia** or the ankle joint, which is characteristic of a pilon fracture.

Question 1073: Saturday night palsy is which type of nerve injury?

A. Neuropraxia (Correct Answer)
B. Axonotemesis
C. Complete section
D. Neurotmesis

Explanation: ***Neuropraxia*** - This is the mildest form of nerve injury, involving a **temporary conduction block** without axonal disruption, often due to **compression** or mild stretching. - **Saturday night palsy**, caused by prolonged compression of the radial nerve, is a classic example, characterized by rapid and complete recovery, typically within days to weeks. *Axonotemesis* - This involves **axon damage** and Wallerian degeneration distal to the injury, but the **endoneurium and connective tissue sheaths remain intact**. - Recovery is slower and often incomplete, as it requires axonal regeneration through the preserved connective tissue tubes, taking months. *Neurotmesis* - This is the most severe type of nerve injury, involving **complete transection of the nerve fiber**, including the axon, myelin, and all connective tissue sheaths. - Recovery is often poor and requires surgical intervention to attempt re-approximation of the nerve ends. *Complete section* - This term is largely synonymous with **neurotmesis**, indicating a full anatomical disruption of the nerve. - It involves the severance of all nerve components, leading to complete loss of function distal to the injury and the poorest prognosis for spontaneous recovery.

Question 1074: What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A. Subcoracoid
B. Subclavicular
C. Posterior
D. Anterior (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Anterior*** - **Anterior shoulder dislocations** account for more than 95% of all shoulder dislocations due to the anatomical vulnerability created by the lack of structural support anteriorly. - The **humeral head** displaces anteriorly and inferiorly relative to the glenoid, often resulting from **abduction and external rotation** forces. *Subcoracoid* - **Subcoracoid dislocation** is a specific type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head specifically lies inferior to the coracoid process. - While it is a common presentation of anterior dislocation, "anterior" refers to the broader category and hence is the more encompassing and correct answer. *Subclavicular* - **Subclavicular dislocation** is an even rarer type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head is displaced medially, lying inferior to the clavicle. - This is a much less common variant compared to general anterior dislocations. *Posterior* - **Posterior shoulder dislocations** are rare, accounting for only 2-4% of all shoulder dislocations. - They are typically associated with specific mechanisms like **seizures**, **electric shock**, or a fall on an adducted, internally rotated arm.

Question 1075: What is a Hangman's fracture?

A. Fracture dislocation of C2 (Correct Answer)
B. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint
C. Fracture of odontoid
D. Subluxation of C5 over C6

Explanation: ***Fracture dislocation of C2*** - A Hangman's fracture classically refers to a **bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis of the axis (C2)**, often with an associated anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. - This injury is typically caused by **hyperextension-distraction forces**, such as those experienced in judicial hangings or motor vehicle accidents. *Subluxation of C5 over C6* - While cervical subluxations are serious, a **C5-C6 subluxation** does not specifically describe a Hangman's fracture. - This type of injury involves different vertebral levels and typically results from different mechanisms. *Fracture dislocation of ankle joint* - This option refers to an injury in the **lower limb**, completely unrelated to the cervical spine. - A Hangman's fracture is a specific type of **cervical vertebral fracture**. *Fracture of odontoid* - A fracture of the odontoid process involves the **dens (odontoid process)** of C2. - This is a distinct type of C2 fracture from a Hangman's fracture, which involves the **pars interarticularis**.

Question 1076: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?

A. Ligamenta flava
B. Supraspinal ligament
C. Post. longitudinal ligament (Correct Answer)
D. Anterior longitudinal ligament

Explanation: ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.

Question 1077: In an extension type of supracondylar fracture, what is the usual direction of displacement?

A. Posterolateral (Correct Answer)
B. Anteromedial
C. Anterolateral
D. Posteromedial

Explanation: ***Posterolateral*** - In an **extension type supracondylar fracture**, the distal fragment (forearm and hand) is typically displaced **posteriorly and laterally**. - This common displacement pattern is often caused by a **fall on an outstretched hand** with the elbow in extension, forcing the olecranon against the humerus. *Anteromedial* - This is an **uncommon displacement** in supracondylar fractures and is not characteristic of the extension type. - While displacement can have a medial or lateral component, the primary displacement in extension type is posterior. *Anterolateral* - Displacement in an anterior direction is typically seen in **flexion-type supracondylar fractures**, which are much rarer. - Even in flexion-type fractures, the lateral component of displacement is less common than medial. *Posteromedial* - While posterior displacement is characteristic of extension supracondylar fractures, a **posteromedial displacement** is encountered, but **posterolateral** is the *most common* pattern. - The varus force often involved in these injuries tends to promote lateral displacement of the distal fragment.

Question 1078: Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?

A. Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus (Correct Answer)
B. Medial condyle fracture of the humerus
C. Fracture of the humeral shaft
D. Fracture of the radial shaft

Explanation: ***Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus*** - This fracture, especially in children, can lead to **cubitus valgus deformity** as a long-term complication if it heals incorrectly. - The resulting **valgus angulation** at the elbow abnormally stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, causing **tardy ulnar nerve palsy** years after the initial injury. *Medial condyle fracture of the humerus* - While close to the ulnar nerve, medial condyle fractures are more likely to cause **immediate nerve damage** due to direct impingement, rather than delayed or "tardy" palsy from chronic stretching. - Complications typically involve varus deformity, which does not commonly stretch the ulnar nerve in the same manner as valgus. *Fracture of the humeral shaft* - This type of fracture is more commonly associated with **radial nerve injury** (e.g., wrist drop), especially in fractures of the mid-shaft. - It does not typically lead to long-term deformities at the elbow that would cause **delayed ulnar nerve compression**. *Fracture of the radial shaft* - Radial shaft fractures (e.g., Monteggia, Galeazzi) primarily affect the **radial nerve** or the **posterior interosseous nerve**. - They do not directly involve the elbow joint in a manner that would cause **tardy ulnar nerve palsy**.

Question 1079: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

A. One part
B. Two part
C. Three part
D. Four part (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.

Question 1080: What is the most common type of dislocation of the elbow joint?

A. Posterior dislocation
B. Posterolateral dislocation (Correct Answer)
C. Posteromedial dislocation
D. Lateral dislocation

Explanation: ***Posterolateral dislocation*** - This is the **most common type of elbow dislocation**, accounting for over 90% of cases. - The **radius and ulna displace posterior and lateral** relative to the humerus. *Posterior dislocation* - While common, **pure posterior dislocations are less frequent** than posterolateral disruptions. - In a pure posterior dislocation, the **forearm bones move directly backward**, without a significant lateral component. *Posteromedial dislocation* - This is a **less common type of elbow dislocation**, involving the ulna and radius displacing posterior and medial. - Often associated with **more complex soft tissue and bony injuries**. *Lateral dislocation* - **Pure lateral dislocations of the elbow are rare** and usually involve significant disruption of the medial collateral ligament. - It occurs when the **forearm bones move directly lateral** to the humerus.

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Principles of Fracture Management

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Upper Limb Fractures

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Lower Limb Fractures

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Spinal Trauma

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Pelvic and Acetabular Fractures

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Open Fractures

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Fractures in Children

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Fracture Complications

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Nonunion and Malunion

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Polytrauma Management

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Joint Dislocations

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Soft Tissue Injuries

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Trauma — MCQs

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