Trauma — MCQs

Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1061: What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?

A. 5 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 15 kg (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***15 kg*** - While the specific weight can vary based on the bone and patient, 10-15 kg is generally the **maximum recommended weight for skeletal traction** in adults to avoid complications. - Applying too much weight risks **damage to the bone, soft tissues, and nerves**, as well as potential pin site infections and neurovascular compromise. *5 kg* - This weight is typically more appropriate for **skin traction**, where the pulling force is applied externally to the skin, limiting the amount of weight that can be safely used without causing skin damage. - In skeletal traction, 5 kg is often used for **initial alignment or very tenuous fractures**, but it is generally insufficient for significant reduction or long-term stabilization. *10 kg* - 10 kg is a common starting point or moderate weight used in skeletal traction, particularly for **femur or tibia fractures**. - While often effective, it is not consistently the maximum safe weight, as some situations may allow or require slightly more weight up to 15 kg for optimal reduction. *20 kg* - Applying 20 kg of weight in skeletal traction is generally considered **excessive and dangerous** in most adult applications. - This high amount of weight significantly increases the risk of **pin loosening, osteomyelitis, neurovascular injury, and avascular necrosis**, especially in areas like the cervical spine or tibia.

Question 1062: Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus is:

A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve (Correct Answer)
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve*** - The **ulnar nerve** runs directly behind the **medial epicondyle** of the humerus in a groove called the **cubital tunnel**, making it highly vulnerable to injury during fractures of this bony prominence. - Injury to the ulnar nerve at this location can cause symptoms like **numbness and tingling** in the **little finger and half of the ring finger**, **weakness in certain hand muscles**, and eventually a **"claw hand" deformity**. *Radial nerve* - The **radial nerve** courses along the posterior aspect of the humerus in the **spiral groove** and is more commonly injured with **mid-shaft humeral fractures**. - Injury typically results in **wrist drop** and **sensory loss over the dorsum of the hand**. *Median nerve* - The **median nerve** travels more anteriorly in the arm and forearm and is most commonly injured with **supracondylar fractures of the humerus** or **carpal tunnel syndrome** at the wrist. - Damage leads to **ape hand deformity** and sensory deficits over the **thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger**. *Musculocutaneous nerve* - The **musculocutaneous nerve** innervates the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles and provides sensation to the lateral forearm; it is **less commonly injured in elbow fractures**. - Injury would primarily affect **elbow flexion** and **sensation over the lateral forearm**, which is not the typical presentation for medial epicondyle fractures.

Question 1063: What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A. Subcoracoid
B. Subclavicular
C. Posterior
D. Anterior (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Anterior*** - **Anterior shoulder dislocations** account for more than 95% of all shoulder dislocations due to the anatomical vulnerability created by the lack of structural support anteriorly. - The **humeral head** displaces anteriorly and inferiorly relative to the glenoid, often resulting from **abduction and external rotation** forces. *Subcoracoid* - **Subcoracoid dislocation** is a specific type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head specifically lies inferior to the coracoid process. - While it is a common presentation of anterior dislocation, "anterior" refers to the broader category and hence is the more encompassing and correct answer. *Subclavicular* - **Subclavicular dislocation** is an even rarer type of **anterior dislocation** where the humeral head is displaced medially, lying inferior to the clavicle. - This is a much less common variant compared to general anterior dislocations. *Posterior* - **Posterior shoulder dislocations** are rare, accounting for only 2-4% of all shoulder dislocations. - They are typically associated with specific mechanisms like **seizures**, **electric shock**, or a fall on an adducted, internally rotated arm.

Question 1064: Garden spade deformity is seen in ?

A. Smith's fracture (Correct Answer)
B. Colle’s fracture
C. Bennett’s fracture
D. Barton’s fracture

Explanation: ***Smith's fracture*** - This fracture involves **volar displacement** of the distal radial fragment, causing the characteristic **garden spade deformity** or **reverse Colles' fracture**. - It typically results from a fall onto a **flexed wrist** or a direct blow to the back of the wrist. *Colle’s fracture* - This fracture is characterized by **dorsal displacement** of the distal radial fragment, leading to a **dinner fork deformity**. - It usually occurs from a fall onto an **extended wrist**. *Bennett’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the base of the **first metacarpal bone**, involving the carpometacarpal joint. - It is often caused by axial loading on a partially flexed thumb. *Barton’s fracture* - This is an **intra-articular fracture** of the distal radius involving either the **dorsal or volar rim**. - It is essentially a **shear fracture** with associated carpal displacement.

Question 1065: What is a Hangman's fracture?

A. Fracture dislocation of C2 (Correct Answer)
B. Fracture dislocation of ankle joint
C. Fracture of odontoid
D. Subluxation of C5 over C6

Explanation: ***Fracture dislocation of C2*** - A Hangman's fracture classically refers to a **bilateral fracture of the pars interarticularis of the axis (C2)**, often with an associated anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. - This injury is typically caused by **hyperextension-distraction forces**, such as those experienced in judicial hangings or motor vehicle accidents. *Subluxation of C5 over C6* - While cervical subluxations are serious, a **C5-C6 subluxation** does not specifically describe a Hangman's fracture. - This type of injury involves different vertebral levels and typically results from different mechanisms. *Fracture dislocation of ankle joint* - This option refers to an injury in the **lower limb**, completely unrelated to the cervical spine. - A Hangman's fracture is a specific type of **cervical vertebral fracture**. *Fracture of odontoid* - A fracture of the odontoid process involves the **dens (odontoid process)** of C2. - This is a distinct type of C2 fracture from a Hangman's fracture, which involves the **pars interarticularis**.

Question 1066: What is a late complication of elbow dislocation?

A. Median nerve injury
B. Brachial artery injury
C. Myositis ossificans (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: **Myositis ossificans** - **Myositis ossificans** is the abnormal formation of **heterotopic bone** within muscle or other soft tissues, often developing weeks to months after joint trauma such as an elbow dislocation. - It typically presents as a painful, firm mass with restricted joint movement, especially **flexion** and **extension** at the elbow. *Median nerve injury* - **Median nerve injury** can occur at the time of the initial elbow dislocation (an **acute complication**), but it is not typically considered a late complication that develops over weeks or months. - Symptoms include numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, as well as weakness in **thumb opposition** and **flexion** of the index finger. *Brachial artery injury* - **Brachial artery injury** is an **acute complication** of severe elbow dislocation, leading to compromise of distal blood flow. - Signs include absence of pulses, pallor, paresthesia, and pain in the forearm and hand, requiring immediate surgical intervention. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **myositis ossificans** is a well-recognized late complication of elbow dislocation.

Question 1067: Which type of supracondylar fracture of the femur is classified as extra-articular?

A. Type B
B. Type C
C. Type A (Correct Answer)
D. Type D

Explanation: ***Type A*** - **Type A supracondylar fractures** are defined as those that do not involve the joint surface, making them **extra-articular**. - These fractures typically occur proximal to the condyles without extending into the knee articulation. *Type B* - **Type B supracondylar fractures** are considered **partial articular**, meaning they involve only a portion of the articular surface. - While they affect the joint, they are not completely intra-articular in nature. *Type C* - **Type C supracondylar fractures** are classified as **complete articular** fractures. - This type implies that the fracture line extends through the entire joint surface and separates the articular segment from the metaphysis. *Type D* - The classification of supracondylar femoral fractures generally uses A, B, and C types to denote extra-articular, partial articular, and complete articular involvement, respectively. - **Type D** is not a standard classification used to define an extra-articular supracondylar femoral fracture in common orthopedic systems like the Orthopaedic Trauma Association (OTA) classification.

Question 1068: Which of the following best describes a hinge fracture?

A. A fracture involving the petrous bone
B. A type of basilar fracture (Correct Answer)
C. A fracture involving the foramen magnum
D. A fracture involving the occipital condyles

Explanation: ***A type of basilar fracture*** - A **hinge fracture** is a specific type of **basilar skull fracture** that typically runs transversely across the floor of the middle cranial fossa. - This fracture often extends through structures like the **sella turcica** and **petrous ridge**, causing significant cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage and cranial nerve palsies due to the tearing of the dura mater. *A fracture involving the petrous bone* - While a hinge fracture can involve the **petrous bone**, this description is too broad, as many types of trauma can affect the petrous bone without constituting a hinge fracture. - The key characteristic of a hinge fracture is its transverse course across the cranial base, not just involvement of a single bone. *A fracture involving the foramen magnum* - Fractures involving the **foramen magnum** are typically considered **occipital condyle fractures** or fractures of the clivus, distinct from the transverse course of a hinge fracture. - These fractures often have different clinical presentations, such as lower cranial nerve deficits or atlanto-occipital dislocation. *A fracture involving the occipital condyles* - **Occipital condyle fractures** are isolated injuries affecting the articulation between the skull and the cervical spine. - They are localized to the posterior cranial fossa and do not describe the characteristic transverse, widespread pattern across the middle cranial fossa seen in a hinge fracture.

Question 1069: What is the characteristic feature of Barton's fracture?

A. Extra-articular fracture of the distal end radius
B. Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius without carpal bone subluxation
C. Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation
D. Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation and joint involvement (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation and joint involvement*** - A **Barton's fracture** is defined as an **intra-articular fracture** of the distal radius involving the dorsal or volar rim, accompanied by **subluxation of the carpus**. - The displacement of the **carpal bones** relative to the fractured radius is a hallmark of this injury, necessitating careful reduction for optimal outcome. *Extra-articular fracture of the distal end radius* - An **extra-articular fracture** means the fracture line does not extend into the joint space, which is not characteristic of a Barton's fracture. - Examples of extra-articular distal radius fractures include some types of **Colles' fractures** or **Smith's fractures** without joint involvement. *Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius without carpal bone subluxation* - While a Barton's fracture is intra-articular, the crucial distinguishing feature is the accompanying **carpal subluxation**. - An **intra-articular fracture** without carpal subluxation would be classified differently, such as a **Chauffeur's fracture** or certain types of **die-punch fractures**. *Intra-articular fracture of the distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation* - This option is partially correct but less complete than the best answer, as it implies joint involvement by definition but doesn't explicitly state it. - The combination of **intra-articular involvement** and **carpal subluxation** explicitly defines a Barton's fracture, whether dorsal or volar.

Question 1070: Most commonly recommended cast position for proximal forearm fractures is ?

A. Pronated flexion
B. Neutral position
C. Supinated position (Correct Answer)
D. Position does not matter

Explanation: ***Supinated position*** - The **supinated position** is generally recommended for proximal forearm fractures because the **biceps brachii** and **supinator muscles**, which are often attached to the proximal fracture segment, cause **supination** when they contract. - Placing the forearm in supination **aligns the distal fracture fragment** with the proximal fragment, promoting better reduction and healing. *Pronated flexion* - **Pronation** would cause the distal fragment to rotate away from the proximal fragment, leading to **malunion** or nonunion. - While some fractures might benefit from a degree of flexion, **pronated flexion** specifically is not the primary position for proximal forearm alignment. *Neutral position* - A **neutral position** might not adequately account for the rotational forces exerted by the biceps and supinator on the proximal fragment, potentially leading to **rotational displacement**. - It does not offer the same alignment benefits as full supination for most proximal forearm fractures. *Position does not matter* - The **cast position is crucial** for forearm fractures, especially proximal ones, as the muscles attached to the forearm bones exert significant rotational forces. - An **incorrect cast position** can lead to rotational deformities, **malunion**, and functional impairment of the forearm.

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Principles of Fracture Management

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Upper Limb Fractures

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Spinal Trauma

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Pelvic and Acetabular Fractures

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Open Fractures

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Fractures in Children

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Fracture Complications

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Nonunion and Malunion

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Polytrauma Management

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Joint Dislocations

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Soft Tissue Injuries

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Trauma — MCQs

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