Open Fractures — MCQs
A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for this patient?
Which of the following is a first-generation cephalosporin used for surgical prophylaxis?
In hand injury, the first structure to be repaired should be?
Ambulatory patients after a disaster are categorized into what color of triage?
All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except:
A 70-year-old physiologically fit male presents with severe hip pain after a fall. X-ray reveals a displaced femoral neck fracture. What is the most appropriate management option?
An RTA patient presented to the emergency department with severe pain in the ankle. An X-ray was performed, given below. What is the best next step in management?
Management of Smith's fracture is
All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:
A patient fell off a bicycle and now complains of pain around the hip, with shortening of the affected limb. The hip is held in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Open Fractures Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A young male came to the hospital with a clean-cut wound without any bleeding. The patient received a full course of tetanus vaccination 10 years ago. What is the best management for this patient?
- A. Single-dose tetanus toxoid (Correct Answer)
- B. Human tetanus immunoglobulin only
- C. Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine
- D. No treatment required
Explanation: ***Single-dose tetanus toxoid*** - For a **clean-cut wound** in a patient who completed a **primary tetanus vaccination series** and received their last dose more than 5 years ago but less than 10 years ago, a **single booster dose** of tetanus toxoid is recommended. [1] - A booster ensures continued protection, as vaccine-induced immunity wanes over time, but the prior full course provides a robust anamnestic response with a single dose. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of vaccine* - This regimen (tetanus immunoglobulin + vaccine) is typically reserved for patients with **unvaccinated status**, an **unknown vaccination history**, or a **severely contaminated wound** (e.g., rusty nail, soil contamination) who have not been fully vaccinated. - The patient had a **clean-cut wound** and completed a full course of vaccination 10 years ago, making immunoglobulin unnecessary and a full course of vaccine excessive. *Human tetanus immunoglobulin only* - Administering **tetanus immunoglobulin alone** is appropriate for immediate, passive immunity in situations where a patient is unvaccinated or has an unknown vaccination status and has a significant risk of tetanus from a contaminated wound. [2] - This patient has a clean wound and a history of full vaccination, so a booster is sufficient to stimulate active immunity. *No treatment required* - While the patient was fully vaccinated 10 years ago, the protection from tetanus vaccination can **wane over time**, especially after 5-10 years. - A **booster dose** is crucial to maintain adequate protection against tetanus, even for a clean wound, given the 10-year interval since the last dose.
Question 2: Which of the following is a first-generation cephalosporin used for surgical prophylaxis?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Cefoxitin
- C. Cefazolin (Correct Answer)
- D. Cefepime
Explanation: ***Cefazolin*** - **Cefazolin** is a **first-generation cephalosporin** routinely used for **surgical prophylaxis** due to its effective coverage against common skin flora like *Staphylococcus aureus* and streptococci. - Its **longer half-life** allows for less frequent dosing pre-operatively, making it practical for preventing surgical site infections. *Ceftriaxone* - **Ceftriaxone** is a **third-generation cephalosporin** with a broader spectrum of activity, including good coverage against many gram-negative bacteria, but it is not typically the first choice for routine surgical prophylaxis. - It is more commonly reserved for treating serious infections such as **meningitis**, **gonorrhea**, and complicated intra-abdominal infections. *Cefoxitin* - **Cefoxitin** is a **second-generation cephalosporin** known for its excellent activity against **anaerobic bacteria**, in addition to gram-positive and some gram-negative organisms. - While it can be used for surgical prophylaxis in procedures with **high anaerobic risk** (e.g., colorectal surgery), it is not a first-generation cephalosporin. *Cefepime* - **Cefepime** is a **fourth-generation cephalosporin** with a very broad spectrum of activity, including excellent coverage against **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** and improved activity against gram-positive bacteria compared to third-generation cephalosporins. - It is reserved for severe infections, such as **febrile neutropenia** and hospital-acquired pneumonia, and is not generally used for routine surgical prophylaxis.
Question 3: In hand injury, the first structure to be repaired should be?
- A. Skin
- B. Muscle
- C. Nerve
- D. Bone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bone*** - In hand injury, **skeletal stability** is paramount and is typically the first structure to be addressed to provide a stable foundation. - Repairing bone first allows for proper alignment and length restoration, which is crucial for the subsequent repair of soft tissues like tendons, nerves, and vessels. *Skin* - While skin closure is the final step in wound management, it should only be performed after deeper structures like bone, tendons, and nerves have been repaired. - Repairing the skin first would prevent access to underlying damaged structures and could lead to functional impairment. *Muscle* - Muscle repair is important for restoring function but should follow bone stabilization to ensure proper length and tension. - Unstable bone fragments can impede effective muscle repair and healing. *Nerve* - Nerve repair is critical for restoring sensation and motor function and should be done with meticulous attention to detail. - However, nerve repair typically follows bone stabilization and sometimes tendon repair, as a stable environment is necessary for successful nerve coaptation and healing.
Question 4: Ambulatory patients after a disaster are categorized into what color of triage?
- A. Red
- B. Yellow
- C. Green (Correct Answer)
- D. Black
Explanation: ***Green*** - **Green tag** is for the walking wounded, meaning those with minor injuries who can move independently and do not require immediate medical attention. - These patients can often assist with **their own care** or aid others, and their treatment can be delayed. *Red* - **Red tag** patients have critical, life-threatening injuries that require immediate intervention to save life or limb. - This category includes conditions like **severe bleeding**, shock, or airway compromise. *Yellow* - **Yellow tag** is assigned to patients with serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening but require definitive treatment within a few hours. - Examples include **stable fractures**, moderate burns, or significant but controlled bleeding. *Black* - **Black tag** indicates patients who are deceased or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely even with maximal medical care. - Resources are diverted from these patients to those with a higher chance of survival, to **maximize overall saved lives**.
Question 5: All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except:
- A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon (Correct Answer)
- B. Carpal instability
- C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
Explanation: ***Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon*** - Malunion of a Colles fracture typically involves dorsal displacement of the distal radius, which can lead to friction and rupture of the **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon due to irritation over the dorsal bony prominence. - The **flexor pollicis longus (FPL)** tendon is on the palmar side of the wrist and is generally not at risk for rupture from a dorsally malunited Colles fracture. *Carpal instability* - **Malunion of a Colles fracture** can significantly alter the normal anatomy and mechanics of the radiocarpal joint, leading to **carpal instability**. - Changes in radial inclination, volar tilt, and radial length can disrupt load bearing and ligamentous integrity, predisposing to carpal collapse or dissociation. *Carpal tunnel syndrome* - Malunion can lead to **decreased carpal tunnel volume** and angulation of the carpal bones, increasing pressure on the **median nerve**. - This anatomical alteration can lead to symptoms of **carpal tunnel syndrome**, such as numbness, tingling, and pain in the median nerve distribution. *Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)* - Also known as **Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I**, RSD is a well-recognized complication following trauma or surgery to an extremity, including Colles fractures. - It presents with pain, swelling, *trophic skin changes*, and vasomotor dysfunction, and can be severely incapacitating.
Question 6: A 70-year-old physiologically fit male presents with severe hip pain after a fall. X-ray reveals a displaced femoral neck fracture. What is the most appropriate management option?
- A. Hemiarthroplasty (Correct Answer)
- B. Total hip replacement
- C. Conservative management with physical therapy
- D. Corticosteroid injection
Explanation: ***Hemiarthroplasty*** - For an **elderly patient** (70-year-old) with a **femoral neck fracture** and good physiological status, hemiarthroplasty is often the preferred choice. - It involves replacing the **femoral head and neck** with a prosthesis, allowing for early mobilization and reducing the risk of avascular necrosis. *Conservative management with physical therapy* - This approach is generally **not suitable for displaced femoral neck fractures** in the elderly due to high risks of **non-union** and **avascular necrosis**. - Prolonged bed rest associated with conservative management can lead to complications such as **pneumonia**, **deep vein thrombosis**, and **pressure ulcers** in elderly patients. *Total hip replacement* - While an option for femoral neck fractures, **total hip replacement** is typically reserved for **younger patients**, those with **pre-existing arthritis**, or those with **better bone quality**. - It involves replacing both the **femoral head and the acetabular cup**, a more complex procedure than hemiarthroplasty. *Corticosteroid injection* - **Corticosteroid injections** are used for **inflammatory joint conditions** and pain relief, **not for fracture management**. - They have **no role in stabilizing a fractured femoral neck** and would not address the mechanical instability or bone healing required.
Question 7: An RTA patient presented to the emergency department with severe pain in the ankle. An X-ray was performed, given below. What is the best next step in management?
- A. Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with slab application (Correct Answer)
- B. Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with cast application
- C. Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate surgery
- D. Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate open reduction
Explanation: ***Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with slab application*** - The X-ray shows an **ankle dislocation without an obvious fracture**, making **closed reduction** the appropriate initial treatment. - A **slab (splint)** is preferred over a full cast initially for acute injuries to accommodate for swelling, reducing the risk of compartment syndrome, and allowing for serial neurovascular checks. *Neurovascular Assessment and Closed reduction with cast application* - While closed reduction is correct, applying a **full cast** immediately after an acute injury carries a risk of **compartment syndrome** due to potential swelling that cannot be accommodated by a rigid cast. - A cast would typically be applied after the initial swelling has subsided, usually a few days to a week after initial reduction and splinting. *Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate surgery* - **Immediate surgery** is generally reserved for **open fractures/dislocations**, dislocations that cannot be reduced closed (irreducible dislocations), or those with significant associated fractures that require surgical fixation to stabilize the joint. - In this case, the dislocation appears to be isolated and amenable to closed reduction, making surgery not the immediate next step. *Neurovascular Assessment and Immediate open reduction* - **Open reduction** is performed when closed reduction fails or is contraindicated, for example, due to soft tissue interposition or highly unstable fracture patterns. - Since closed reduction has not yet been attempted, immediate open reduction is premature and unnecessary for an apparently simple dislocation.
Question 8: Management of Smith's fracture is
- A. Above-elbow cast with forearm in supination
- B. Above-elbow cast with forearm in pronation (Correct Answer)
- C. Open reduction and fixation
- D. Closed reduction with below-elbow cast
Explanation: ***Above-elbow cast with forearm in pronation*** - A Smith's fracture, also known as a **reverse Colles' fracture**, involves dorsal displacement of the distal radial fragment. - Applying an **above-elbow cast with the forearm in pronation** helps to stabilize the fracture by counteracting the deforming forces and maintaining reduction. *Above-elbow cast with forearm in supination* - **Supination** is typically used for a **Colles' fracture**, which involves volar (palmar) displacement. - In a Smith's fracture, supination would exacerbate the dorsal displacement and destabilize the reduction. *Open reduction and fixation* - This is considered for **unstable, highly comminuted, or irreducible fractures**, or when closed reduction fails. - For most Smith's fractures, especially if stable after reduction, conservative management with casting is the first line of treatment. *Closed reduction with below-elbow cast* - A **below-elbow cast** may not provide sufficient immobilization of the forearm, particularly in cases involving pronation/supination instability. - An **above-elbow cast** is generally preferred to control the rotation of the forearm and prevent redisplacement of the fracture fragments.
Question 9: All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:
- A. Multiple trauma
- B. Stable closed fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Compound fracture
- D. Intra-articular fracture
Explanation: ***Stable closed fracture*** - A **stable closed fracture** typically does not require surgical intervention with ORIF as it can usually be managed non-surgically with casting or bracing. - The goal of ORIF is to achieve **anatomic reduction and rigid fixation**, which is not necessary for stable fractures that maintain alignment. *Multiple trauma* - In patients with **multiple trauma**, early stabilization of long bone fractures using ORIF can help reduce pain, prevent further injury, and facilitate patient mobilization. - This approach aims to reduce the risk of complications such as **ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)** and fat embolism for critically ill patients. *Compound fracture* - **Compound (open) fractures** involve a break in the skin, exposing the bone to the external environment, and are a classic indication for surgical management. - ORIF in these cases helps to achieve **stabilization** after debridement, crucial for preventing infection and promoting bone healing. *Intra-articular fracture* - **Intra-articular fractures** involve the joint surface, and accurate anatomical reduction is critical to prevent post-traumatic arthritis and preserve joint function. - ORIF provides the precise reduction and stable fixation needed to restore the **joint congruity**.
Question 10: A patient fell off a bicycle and now complains of pain around the hip, with shortening of the affected limb. The hip is held in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intertrochanteric fracture (IT fracture)
- B. Transcervical fracture
- C. Posterior dislocation (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior dislocation
Explanation: **Posterior dislocation** - **Posterior hip dislocations** typically occur after high-energy trauma (e.g., falls from height, motor vehicle accidents) and present with the affected limb in a classic position of **flexion, adduction, and internal rotation**. - **Shortening of the limb** is also a hallmark sign, often due to the femoral head displacing posteriorly and superiorly. *Intertrochanteric fracture (IT fracture)* - **Intertrochanteric fractures** usually present with the affected limb in **external rotation** and shortening, which is contrary to the internal rotation described in the case. - While pain is present, the specific rotational deformity helps differentiate it from a hip dislocation. *Transcervical fracture* - **Transcervical fractures** (femoral neck fractures) also typically present with the leg in **external rotation** and shortening. - These fractures are common in older adults and often associated with less severe trauma or falls. *Anterior dislocation* - **Anterior hip dislocations** are less common and typically present with the affected limb in a position of **flexion, abduction, and external rotation**. - This presentation is directly opposite to the adduction and internal rotation described in the question.
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