Spine Disorders Practice Questions

Q: What is the commonest cause of spinal cord injuries in India?

Fall from a height. **Explanation:** The epidemiology of spinal cord injuries (SCI) varies significantly based on geography and socioeconomic factors. In the context of India, **Fall from a height (Option B)** remains the leading cause of spinal cord injuries. This is primarily attributed to the high prevalence of falls from trees (e.g., coconut or palm trees in rural areas), falls from unprotected rooftops or balconies, and falls from electric poles or construction sites. * **Why Option B is Correct:** Epidemiological studies across major Indian tertiary care centers consistently show that falls from height account for approximately 45–50% of all SCIs, surpassing vehicular accidents. The most common site of injury in these cases is the **thoracolumbar junction (T12-L1)**, often resulting from axial loading. * **Why Option A is Incorrect:** While **Road Traffic Accidents (RTA)** are the leading cause of SCI in developed Western nations (like the USA), they currently rank as the second most common cause in India. * **Why Options C and D are Incorrect:** **Fall into a well** and **House collapse** are recognized causes of SCI in specific rural or disaster settings, but their overall statistical contribution is significantly lower than general falls or RTAs. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of spinal fracture:** Thoracolumbar junction (T12-L1) because it is the transition zone between the rigid thoracic spine and mobile lumbar spine. * **Most common level of cervical cord injury:** C5-C6. * **Initial Management:** The "Log Roll" technique is used to maintain spinal alignment during transport. * **Methylprednisolone:** While controversial, the NASCIS trials previously suggested its use within 8 hours of injury, though current guidelines prioritize surgical decompression and hemodynamic stability.

Q: In which spinal disease are both the bone and disc spaces involved?

Tuberculosis. **Explanation:** In spinal pathology, the involvement of the intervertebral disc is a crucial diagnostic differentiator. **1. Why Tuberculosis (Pott’s Disease) is Correct:** Tuberculosis of the spine typically begins in the paradiscal area of the vertebral body. Because the intervertebral disc is avascular, it derives its nutrition via diffusion from the vertebral endplates. In TB, the infection destroys these endplates, compromising the disc's nutrition and leading to **disc space narrowing**. Furthermore, TB lacks proteolytic enzymes (unlike pyogenic infections), allowing the infection to track under the anterior longitudinal ligament and involve adjacent vertebrae and the intervening disc. **2. Why the other options are Incorrect:** * **B. Osteoporosis:** This is a metabolic bone disease characterized by decreased bone density. While it leads to vertebral "codfish" deformities or wedge fractures, the pathology is confined to the bone; the disc spaces are usually preserved or may even appear "biconvex" due to expansion into the weakened bone. * **C. Osteoid Osteoma:** This is a benign osteoblastic tumor. It typically involves the posterior elements (lamina/pedicle) and causes painful scoliosis. It does not involve the disc space. * **D. Eosinophilic Granuloma:** Part of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis, this classically causes **Vertebra Plana** (pancake vertebra). Crucially, the disc spaces above and below the collapsed vertebra remain characteristically **normal/preserved**. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Paradiscal type** is the most common variety of Spinal TB. * **Rule of Thumb:** Infections (TB/Pyogenic) destroy the disc; Tumors (Malignancy/EG) and Metabolic diseases spare the disc. * **MRI** is the investigation of choice for early diagnosis of Spinal TB. * **Cold Abscess:** A hallmark of TB, formed because the inflammatory response lacks the heat and redness of pyogenic infections.

Q: A burst fracture is typically caused by which type of mechanism?

Vertical compression. **Explanation:** **1. Why Vertical Compression is Correct:** A **Burst fracture** is a specific type of spinal injury characterized by the failure of both the **anterior and middle columns** (according to Denis’s Three-Column Classification). It is caused by a high-energy **axial loading (vertical compression)** force. This force drives the intervertebral disc into the vertebral body below, causing it to shatter or "burst" outward. A hallmark of this injury is the retropulsion of bone fragments into the spinal canal, which carries a high risk of neurological deficit. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Whiplash injury:** This is typically a soft-tissue injury (hyperextension-hyperflexion) of the cervical spine, common in rear-end motor vehicle accidents. It rarely results in a burst fracture. * **C. Wedge compression:** This involves failure of only the **anterior column** due to a flexion-compression force. The posterior cortex of the vertebral body remains intact, making it more stable than a burst fracture. * **D. Avulsion fracture:** This occurs when a ligament or tendon pulls a small fragment of bone away from the main mass (e.g., a "Teardrop" fracture in the cervical spine). It is not caused by axial loading. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Denis Classification:** Burst fractures involve the **Anterior + Middle columns**. * **Radiology:** Look for an **increased interpedicular distance** on an AP X-ray and **retropulsion** of fragments on a CT scan. * **Neurological Risk:** Because the middle column is involved, these fractures are inherently unstable and often require surgical stabilization if there is canal compromise. * **Common Site:** Most frequently occurs at the **Thoracolumbar junction (T12-L1)**.

Q: A patient presents with a burning sensation in the little toe, and a weak ankle reflex. Which spinal disc herniation is most likely responsible?

L5-S1. ### Explanation The clinical presentation of a burning sensation in the **little toe** (lateral aspect of the foot) combined with a **weak ankle reflex** (S1 reflex arc) points directly to an **S1 nerve root** compression. **1. Why L5-S1 is correct:** In the lumbar spine, a posterolateral disc herniation typically compresses the **traversing nerve root** (the one exiting at the level below). Therefore, an **L5-S1 disc herniation** compresses the **S1 nerve root**. * **Sensory:** The S1 nerve root supplies the lateral malleolus and the lateral edge of the foot, including the little toe. * **Motor:** It controls plantar flexion (gastrocnemius-soleus complex). * **Reflex:** It mediates the **Achilles (Ankle) reflex**. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **L4-L5 (Option D):** This would compress the **L5 nerve root**. Clinical features include weakness in great toe extension (EHL), foot drop, and sensory loss over the first dorsal web space. The ankle reflex remains intact. * **L2-L3 & L1-L2 (Options B & C):** These are upper lumbar levels. Compression here affects the **L3 or L2 roots**, leading to weakness in hip flexion or knee extension, sensory loss over the anterior thigh, and a diminished **Knee (Patellar) reflex**. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Rule of the Root":** Disc herniation at L(X)-L(X+1) affects nerve root (X+1). * **L4 Root:** Weakness in foot inversion; diminished Knee reflex; sensation at medial malleolus. * **L5 Root:** Weakness in Big Toe Extension (EHL); **No specific reflex**; sensation at 1st dorsal web space. * **S1 Root:** Weakness in Plantar flexion; diminished Ankle reflex; sensation at lateral border of foot. * **SLRT (Straight Leg Raising Test):** Most sensitive for L4-L5 and L5-S1 herniations.

Q: What is the most common site of vertebral compression fracture?

T12-L1. **Explanation:** The most common site for vertebral compression fractures is the **thoracolumbar junction (T12-L1)**. **1. Why T12-L1 is the Correct Answer:** The thoracolumbar junction represents a critical **transition zone** in the spinal column. The thoracic spine is relatively rigid due to its attachment to the rib cage, whereas the lumbar spine is highly mobile. When a vertical load or hyperflexion force is applied (common in falls from height or osteoporosis), the stress concentrates at the point where the rigid segment meets the mobile segment. T12 and L1 bear the brunt of this mechanical transition, making them the most vulnerable to wedge compression fractures. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **C5-C6:** This is the most common site for **cervical spondylosis** and degenerative disc disease due to high mobility, but not for compression fractures. * **C7-T1 (Cervicothoracic junction):** While a transition zone, it is less frequently fractured than the thoracolumbar junction. It is, however, a common site for "Clay Shoveler’s fracture" (spinous process of C7). * **L5-S1:** This is the most common site for **spondylolisthesis** and **lumbar disc herniation** (sciatica), but it is protected from compression fractures by the heavy iliolumbar ligaments and the pelvic girdle. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Most compression fractures are "wedge fractures," where the anterior column fails while the posterior column remains intact. * **Osteoporosis:** In elderly patients, T12-L1 compression fractures can occur with minimal trauma (e.g., sneezing or bending). * **Neurology:** Most T12-L1 fractures do not cause complete paraplegia but may result in **Conus Medullaris syndrome**. * **Imaging:** The lateral X-ray is the initial investigation of choice to visualize the loss of anterior vertebral height.

Q: Scheuermann's disease is characterized by which of the following?

Vertebral osteochondritis. **Explanation:** **Scheuermann’s disease** is a form of **vertebral osteochondritis** (specifically of the secondary ossification centers of the vertebral bodies). It is a common cause of structural kyphosis in adolescents. The condition occurs due to a growth abnormality of the vertebral endplates, leading to wedge-shaped vertebrae, disc space narrowing, and the characteristic "hunchback" deformity. **Why Option C is correct:** The pathology involves the thoracic or thoracolumbar spine. Diagnosis is confirmed radiologically by **Sorensen’s criteria**: at least three adjacent vertebrae wedged by 5° or more. This fits the definition of osteochondritis affecting the spine. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Calcaneum):** Osteochondritis of the calcaneal apophysis is known as **Sever’s disease**. * **Option B (Navicular):** Osteochondritis of the tarsal navicular bone is known as **Kohler’s disease**. * **Option D (Scaphoid):** Osteochondritis of the carpal scaphoid is known as **Preiser’s disease** (though Kienböck’s disease of the lunate is a more common exam topic). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Radiological Sign:** **Schmorl’s nodes** (protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the vertebral endplate into the adjacent vertebra) are a hallmark finding. * **Clinical Presentation:** Fixed kyphosis that does not disappear on extension (unlike postural kyphosis) and compensatory lumbar lordosis. * **Management:** Conservative (Milwaukee brace) for curves 75° or neurological deficits.

Q: A 55-year-old male presents with urinary incontinence and severe back pain for 10 days. Imaging shows a lumbar disc prolapse. He has no history of weight loss or fever. What is the diagnosis?

Cauda equina syndrome. ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Cauda Equina Syndrome (CES)** The clinical presentation of **acute urinary incontinence** (autonomic dysfunction) combined with **severe back pain** and imaging evidence of a **lumbar disc prolapse** is a classic triad for Cauda Equina Syndrome. CES occurs due to the compression of multiple lumbosacral nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris (usually L2-L5). In this case, the disc prolapse is the mechanical cause of compression. This is a **surgical emergency** requiring urgent decompression to prevent permanent neurological deficits. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Pott’s Spine (Tuberculosis):** While it causes back pain and potential cord compression, it is typically associated with constitutional symptoms like **fever, weight loss, and night sweats**, which are absent here. * **Multiple Myeloma:** This would be suspected in an older patient with back pain and weight loss (CRAB features), but the acute onset of incontinence following a documented disc prolapse points more directly to a mechanical neurological emergency. * **Guillain-Barré Syndrome:** GBS presents as **acute ascending symmetrical paralysis** with areflexia. While it can involve autonomic dysfunction, it is not associated with lumbar disc prolapse or localized severe mechanical back pain. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Red Flags for CES:** Saddle anesthesia (most specific), bladder/bowel dysfunction (increased urinary frequency or overflow incontinence), and bilateral sciatica. * **Gold Standard Investigation:** MRI Spine (Urgent). * **Management:** Surgical decompression (Laminectomy + Discectomy) ideally within **24–48 hours** of symptom onset. * **Level of Lesion:** It is a **Lower Motor Neuron (LMN)** lesion because the cauda equina consists of peripheral nerve roots.

Q: What substance is used for vertebroplasty?

Poly methyl methacrylate. **Explanation:** **Vertebroplasty** is a minimally invasive image-guided procedure used to treat painful vertebral compression fractures (commonly due to osteoporosis or malignancy). It involves the percutaneous injection of a bone cement to stabilize the fractured vertebra and provide rapid pain relief. **Why PMMA is the Correct Answer:** The substance used is **Poly methyl methacrylate (PMMA)**. It is a medical-grade polymer that acts as a "bone cement." When the liquid monomer is mixed with the powder polymer, an exothermic reaction occurs, causing the substance to harden. This provides immediate structural reinforcement to the weakened vertebral body and alleviates pain by stabilizing microfractures and potentially destroying local nociceptors through the heat generated during polymerization. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options B, C, and D:** These are chemical variations (ethyl or ethacrylate derivatives) that do not possess the specific biomechanical properties, biocompatibility, or the extensive clinical track record required for orthopedic use. PMMA remains the gold standard for both vertebroplasty and joint replacement fixation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Kyphoplasty vs. Vertebroplasty:** Kyphoplasty involves inflating a balloon first to restore vertebral height before injecting PMMA, whereas vertebroplasty involves direct injection. * **Complications:** The most common complication is **cement leakage**. If cement enters the venous system, it can lead to **pulmonary embolism**. * **Contraindications:** Active systemic infection, uncorrected coagulopathy, or a fracture that is asymptomatic. * **Barium Sulfate:** Often added to the PMMA powder to make the cement **radiopaque**, allowing for real-time visualization under fluoroscopy.

Q: A middle-aged lady presents with complaints of lower back pain. On examination, there is weakness of extension of the right great toe with no sensory impairment. An MRI of the lumbosacral spine would most probably reveal a prolapsed intervertebral disc at what level?

L4-L5. ### Explanation The clinical presentation of weakness in the **extension of the great toe** (Extensor Hallucis Longus - EHL) is a classic sign of **L5 nerve root** involvement. **1. Why L4-L5 is correct:** In the lumbar spine, a posterolateral disc prolapse (the most common type) typically compresses the **traversing nerve root** (the root exiting one level below). Therefore, a prolapse at the **L4-L5 level** compresses the **L5 nerve root**. The L5 root supplies the EHL muscle; hence, its compression leads to weakness in great toe extension. The absence of sensory impairment in this case suggests a predominantly motor fiber involvement, which is common in early or specific root compressions. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **L3-L4 (Option A):** This would compress the **L4 nerve root**, leading to weakness in knee extension (Quadriceps) and a diminished knee jerk reflex. * **L5-S1 (Option B):** This would compress the **S1 nerve root**, resulting in weakness of plantar flexion (Gastrocnemius/Soleus), loss of the ankle jerk reflex, and sensory loss on the lateral aspect of the foot. * **S1-S2 (Option D):** This level is rarely involved in disc prolapse and would primarily affect intrinsic foot muscles or bladder/bowel function (cauda equina). **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **L4 Root:** Weakness in Foot Inversion/Knee Extension; Reflex: Knee jerk. * **L5 Root:** Weakness in Great Toe Extension (EHL) and Foot Dorsiflexion; Reflex: None. * **S1 Root:** Weakness in Plantar Flexion/Foot Eversion; Reflex: Ankle jerk. * **Rule of Thumb:** In the lumbar spine, the nerve root involved is usually the lower one of the two vertebrae (e.g., L4-L5 affects L5). In the cervical spine, it is the upper one (e.g., C5-C6 affects C6).

Question 1

What is the commonest cause of spinal cord injuries in India?

Accepted Answer

Fall from a height

Answer

Road traffic accident

Answer

Fall into a well

Answer

House collapse

Question 2

In which spinal disease are both the bone and disc spaces involved?

Accepted Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Osteoporosis

Answer

Osteoid osteoma

Answer

Eosinophilic granuloma

Question 3

A burst fracture is typically caused by which type of mechanism?

Accepted Answer

Vertical compression

Answer

Whiplash injury

Answer

Wedge compression

Answer

Avulsion fracture

Question 4

A patient presents with a burning sensation in the little toe, and a weak ankle reflex. Which spinal disc herniation is most likely responsible?

Accepted Answer

L5-S1

Answer

L2-L3

Answer

L1-L2

Answer

L4-L5

Question 5

What is the most common site of vertebral compression fracture?

Accepted Answer

T12-L1

Answer

C5-C6

Answer

C7-T1

Answer

L5-S1

Question 6

Scheuermann's disease is characterized by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Vertebral osteochondritis

Answer

Osteochondritis of the calcaneum

Answer

Osteochondritis of the navicular bone

Answer

Osteochondritis of the scaphoid bone

Question 7

An 87-year-old woman presents with lower back pain exacerbated by walking or prolonged standing, and occasionally relieved by bending over. Physical examination reveals a thin elderly woman who walks with a cane, with her lower back moderately flexed. Motor power in her lower extremities is normal, but she has impaired sensation to light touch and vibration below the L4 dermatome bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are normal in her upper extremities but absent in both lower extremities. MRI of the lumbosacral spine is performed. What will be the most likely finding on this study?

Accepted Answer

Lumbar spinal stenosis

Answer

A fracture of the odontoid process

Answer

A herniated L3-L4 disk causing unilateral compression of the L4 root

Answer

Spinal cord compression at the L1 vertebral level

Question 8

A 55-year-old male presents with urinary incontinence and severe back pain for 10 days. Imaging shows a lumbar disc prolapse. He has no history of weight loss or fever. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Cauda equina syndrome

Answer

Pott's spine

Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Question 9

What substance is used for vertebroplasty?

Accepted Answer

Poly methyl methacrylate

Answer

Poly ethyl methacrylate

Answer

Poly methyl ethacrylate

Answer

Poly ethyl ethacrylate

Question 10

A middle-aged lady presents with complaints of lower back pain. On examination, there is weakness of extension of the right great toe with no sensory impairment. An MRI of the lumbosacral spine would most probably reveal a prolapsed intervertebral disc at what level?

Accepted Answer

L4-L5

Answer

L3-L4

Answer

L5-S1

Answer

S1-S2

Spine Disorders — MCQs

Spine Disorders — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?